ATI RN
Basic Nursing Care Needs of the Patient Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a surgical patient, when the family member asks what perioperative nursing means. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because perioperative nursing encompasses activities before, during, and after surgery. Preoperative nursing care involves preadmission testing, assessment, and preparation for surgery. Intraoperative nursing care occurs during the surgical procedure. Postoperative nursing care takes place in the recovery room and continues until the patient is discharged. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not fully capture the comprehensive scope of perioperative nursing, which involves caring for the patient throughout the entire surgical process, not limited to a specific phase.
Question 2 of 5
Your adult patient has an altered mental status, and a blood sugar reading of 35 mg/dL is obtained using a glucometer. He is unable to follow commands, and no IV access is available. Which medication and route should be considered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Glucagon intramuscularly. Glucagon is the preferred treatment for severe hypoglycemia in patients with altered mental status and no IV access. When administered intramuscularly, it quickly raises blood sugar levels by stimulating glycogen breakdown in the liver. Oral glucose (choice B) is not suitable for patients who cannot follow commands. IV dextrose (choice C) requires IV access, which is not available in this scenario. Glucagon should not be given subcutaneously (choice D) as it may have delayed absorption and be less effective in this critical situation.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following medication types are used to decrease the workload of the heart by blocking sympathetic stimulation of receptors that work on the SA node and myocardial cells, thus decreasing the force of myocardial contraction and directly reducing a patient's heart rate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Beta-blockers. Beta-blockers decrease the workload of the heart by blocking the sympathetic stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart. This action results in a decrease in heart rate and the force of myocardial contraction. By blocking these receptors, beta-blockers reduce the impact of adrenaline and other stress hormones on the heart, leading to a decrease in the heart's workload. A: Alpha-adrenergic agents primarily work on alpha-adrenergic receptors and do not have the same effect on decreasing the workload of the heart. C: Calcium-channel blockers work by blocking calcium channels in the heart and blood vessels, leading to vasodilation and decreased contractility of the heart. While they can reduce the heart's workload, they do not primarily target sympathetic stimulation of receptors working on the SA node and myocardial cells. D: Sodium-channel blockers primarily affect the conduction of electrical impulses in the heart and are used for different purposes, such as
Question 4 of 5
While conducting an EKG on your post-myocardial infarction patient, you note the presence of consistently wide QRS complexes greater than 120 ms in duration. What does this most likely indicate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An intraventricular conduction delay or right/left bundle branch block. Wide QRS complexes greater than 120 ms duration typically indicate an intraventricular conduction delay, such as a bundle branch block. In the context of a post-myocardial infarction patient, this finding is common due to damage to the conduction system. Bundle branch blocks can lead to widened QRS complexes. Summary: B: A complete heart block is incorrect as it would typically present with a different EKG pattern. C: While a myocardial infarction can cause conduction abnormalities, the widened QRS complexes are not indicative of an acute infarction. D: Congenital heart defects are not typically associated with wide QRS complexes in a post-myocardial infarction patient.
Question 5 of 5
You are preparing to initiate a rapid sequence intubation on a pediatric patient who is exhibiting a borderline hypotensive state with a decreased level of consciousness and hypoventilation. He is quickly becoming hypoxic with a SpO2 of 77% and a delayed capillary refill. Which medication would be most effective in sedating this patient for the procedure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ketamine. Ketamine is the most effective choice for sedating this pediatric patient for rapid sequence intubation due to its properties of providing sedation, analgesia, and maintenance of airway reflexes. Its rapid onset and short duration of action make it ideal for this situation. Additionally, ketamine can help maintain the patient's blood pressure and respiratory drive, which is crucial in a borderline hypotensive state with hypoventilation. Succinylcholine (A) is a paralytic agent and does not provide sedation or analgesia, so it would not address the patient's need for sedation. Midazolam (B) and Propofol (D) are sedatives but may cause respiratory depression and hypotension, which could worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, they are not the most appropriate choices in this scenario.