ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with chroni c obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment would be a cue to the patient developing postoperative pneumonia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Change in sputum characteristics. This is a cue for postoperative pneumonia in a COPD patient because it can indicate an infection in the lungs. Postoperative pneumonia is a common complication in patients with COPD due to impaired lung function and weakened immune system. Other choices are incorrect: A) Bradycardia is not a specific indicator of postoperative pneumonia. C) Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis can be seen in patients with COPD but are not specific to postoperative pneumonia. D) Pursed-lip breathing is a coping mechanism for patients with COPD and is not directly related to postoperative pneumonia.
Question 2 of 9
Which interventions may be included during “terminal we aning”? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because during terminal weaning, the artificial ventilation is discontinued while maintaining the artificial airway to ensure comfort and support. This allows the patient to breathe on their own with support as needed. Explanation: 1. Option A: Complete extubation following ventilator withdrawal may not be suitable during terminal weaning as it involves removing the breathing tube entirely. 2. Option C: Discontinuation of anxiolytic and pain medications may not always be appropriate during terminal weaning as it depends on the patient's comfort needs. 3. Option D: Titration of ventilator support based on blood gas determinations is not typically done during terminal weaning as the focus is on gradual withdrawal of ventilation support while maintaining comfort.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) following a massive heart attack. When assessing the patient, the nurse notices blood backing up into the IABP catheter. In which order should the nurse take the following actions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Ensuring the IABP console is turned off is crucial to prevent further complications and stop potential harm to the patient. 2. By turning off the IABP console, the nurse can halt the pumping action, allowing assessment of the situation without interference. 3. This action takes priority over other steps as it addresses the immediate issue of blood backing up into the IABP catheter. 4. Once the console is turned off, the nurse can proceed with assessing the patient's vital signs, notifying the healthcare provider, and obtaining supplies if needed. Summary of Incorrect Choices: - Option B: Assessing vital signs and orientation is important, but addressing the malfunction of the IABP takes precedence to prevent harm. - Option C: Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary, but first, the immediate issue of blood backing up into the catheter must be addressed. - Option D: Obtaining supplies for a new catheter is premature without first addressing
Question 4 of 9
Comparing the patient’s current (home) medications with those ordered during hospitalization and communicating a complete list of medications to the next care provider when the patient is transferred within an organization or to another setting a re strategies toward best achieving what patient related goal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Reconciling medications is essential for patient safety as it involves comparing current and ordered medications to ensure accuracy. Step 2: This process helps prevent medication errors, adverse drug reactions, and duplications across different care settings. Step 3: Communicating a complete list of medications to the next care provider ensures continuity of care and reduces the risk of medication discrepancies. Step 4: By reconciling medications across the continuum of care, healthcare providers can better coordinate patient care and optimize treatment outcomes. In summary, choice C is correct as it focuses on medication reconciliation to improve patient safety and care coordination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the comprehensive process of reconciling medications across care settings.
Question 5 of 9
The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient’s lungs. Rhabdomyolysis can lead to acute kidney injury due to myoglobin release from damaged muscle cells. IV fluids and mannitol are given to prevent kidney damage by promoting myoglobin excretion. Assessing the patient’s lungs is crucial to monitor for potential complications such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) which can occur as a result of rhabdomyolysis. This assessment helps to ensure early detection and prompt intervention if respiratory issues arise. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Assess the patient’s hearing - This is not directly related to rhabdomyolysis or its treatment. C: Decrease IV fluids once the diuretic has been administered - Decreasing IV fluids can exacerbate kidney injury in rhabdomyolysis. D: Give extra doses before giving radiological contrast agents - Mannitol is not routinely given before radiological contrast agents in the context of rhabdomyolysis management.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with terminal cancer reports a sudden onset of severe pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the patient’s pain using a standardized pain scale. The first step is to assess the severity and nature of the pain to determine the appropriate intervention. This allows the nurse to understand the pain intensity and characteristics, which guides the choice of analgesic and dosing. Administering analgesics (B) without proper assessment can lead to inappropriate treatment. Notifying the healthcare provider (C) is important but assessing the pain should come first. Repositioning the patient (D) may provide comfort but addressing the pain directly is the priority.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with an admitting diagnosis of congestive failure. While attempting to obtain a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure in the supine position, the patient becomes anxious and tachypneic. What is the best action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees while recording pressures. Rationale: 1. Elevating the head of the bed will help improve the patient's breathing by reducing the pressure on the diaphragm. 2. This position will also help alleviate the patient's anxiety and tachypnea, promoting better oxygenation. 3. Recording pressures in this position will provide accurate data for monitoring the patient's condition. Summary: A: Limiting the supine position to 10 seconds does not address the underlying issues causing the patient's anxiety and tachypnea. B: Administering anxiety medications without addressing the positioning issue may not effectively manage the patient's symptoms. C: Encouraging the patient to take slow deep breaths is helpful, but changing the position of the patient is more crucial in this situation.
Question 8 of 9
A 10-year-old female patient in ICU receiving chemotherapy has requested that her dog be allowed to visit her. She is currently sharing a room with another patient. The nurse knows that the hospital does allow for pet visits with owners, but has strict guidelines. Which of the following scenarios is most likely to be permitted?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it follows the hospital's guidelines for pet visits. It allows the dog to be brought in on a leash, which ensures control and safety during the visit. The 20-minute duration is appropriate to limit potential stress on the patient and other individuals in the room. Additionally, having the father bring the dog in maintains consistency with the hospital's policy of pet visits with owners. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not adhere to the hospital's guidelines. Choice B allows for an overnight stay, which is typically not permitted due to potential disruptions and hygiene concerns. Choice C mentions vaccinations but overlooks other important factors like leash control and visit duration. Choice D suggests waiting until the girl is moved to a private room, which may not align with the hospital's policy of allowing pet visits with owners.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse cares for an adolescent patient who is dying. The patient’s parents are interested in organ donation and ask the nurse how the decision about brain death is made. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Brain death has occurred if there is no breathing and certain reflexes are absent. Brain death is defined as the irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brainstem. The absence of breathing and certain reflexes, such as no response to painful stimuli or no pupillary response to light, are key indicators of brain death. This definition is crucial for determining eligibility for organ donation. Incorrect choices: A: Brain death occurs if a person is flaccid and unresponsive. Flaccidity and unresponsiveness are not specific criteria for diagnosing brain death. B: If CPR is ineffective in restoring a heartbeat, the brain cannot function. The absence of a heartbeat alone does not indicate brain death. D: If respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible, brain death is present. Respiratory cessation and the absence of pulse are not definitive signs of brain death.