ATI RN
Basic Care of Dying Patient Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who has had a minimally invasive carpel tunnel repair. The patient has a temperature of 97° F and is shivering. Which reason will the nurse most likely consider as the primary cause when planning care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anesthesia lowers metabolism. Anesthesia can disrupt the body's ability to regulate temperature by suppressing the body's natural thermoregulation mechanisms, leading to hypothermia and shivering. Shivering is a common response to anesthesia-induced hypothermia as the body tries to generate heat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because surgical suites having air currents, the patient being dressed only in a gown, and the large open body cavity contributing to heat loss are not the primary causes of the patient's shivering in this context.
Question 2 of 5
You are transporting a 20-year-old pregnant female from a local hospital to a medical facility that specializes in high-risk pregnancies when you note the patient is experiencing unexplained hypotension and bradycardia. The patient has a patent IV and is being administered magnesium that was initiated by hospital staff. On the cardiac monitor, the patient presents with a lengthening PR interval and signs of an impending high-degree nodal block. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate in this case?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately, and administer the appropriate dose of calcium chloride to correct the adverse effects of magnesium toxicity. Rationale: 1. Magnesium toxicity can lead to hypotension, bradycardia, and cardiac conduction abnormalities. 2. Stopping the magnesium infusion is crucial to prevent further adverse effects. 3. Calcium chloride is the antidote for magnesium toxicity as it competes with magnesium for binding sites on cardiac cells, restoring normal cardiac function. 4. Administering a normal saline bolus (choice A) would not address the underlying cause of magnesium toxicity. 5. Administering potassium chloride (choice C) is not appropriate as it can exacerbate the cardiac effects of magnesium toxicity. 6. Reducing the magnesium infusion and administering dextrose 50% (choice D) would not address the magnesium toxicity and may not reverse the cardiac effects.
Question 3 of 5
Your adult female postpartum patient delivered her newborn with the assistance of her husband five minutes prior to your arrival on the scene. The infant's Apgar score is 10, and the baby seems to be fine. However, the mother continues to bleed heavily after an adequate fundal massage and encouraging the infant to breastfeed. Her current heart rate is 125 bpm; her blood pressure is 108/60, and she is breathing 22 times a minute with an SpO2 of 97. After ensuring a second infant is not present, which of the following interventions would medical command most likely recommend?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because administering oxytocin infusion is the most appropriate intervention for postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony, which is a common cause of excessive bleeding after delivery. Oxytocin helps to stimulate uterine contractions, which will help control the bleeding by reducing the size of the blood vessels at the placental site. This intervention is evidence-based and recommended in postpartum hemorrhage management protocols. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Packing the vagina is not indicated unless there is active vaginal bleeding that cannot be controlled by other methods. B: Administering lactated Ringer's solution at a rapid rate is not the first-line treatment for postpartum hemorrhage. C: Trendelenburg position and a fluid bolus of normal saline are not recommended as they can increase the risk of fluid overload and do not address the underlying cause of the bleeding. In summary, administering oxytocin infusion is the most appropriate intervention to manage post
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following patients best fits the criteria for a critical burn?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a 10-year-old patient with superficial burns over 60% of the body is considered a critical burn due to the extent of body surface area involved and the age of the patient. Young children have less physiological reserve and are more prone to fluid loss and complications. Superficial burns over a large body surface area can lead to significant fluid loss, electrolyte imbalances, and potential systemic complications. Choice B is incorrect as full-thickness burns are more severe than superficial burns, but the extent of burns on the left upper/lower arm is limited compared to Choice A. Choice C is incorrect because although the patient has partial-thickness burns over 25% of the body, the age of the patient is not as critical as in Choice A. Choice D is incorrect for the same reasons as Choice C; the extent of burns is similar but the age of the patient is different, and the patient's age is a crucial factor in determining the severity of burns.
Question 5 of 5
What is the name of the legal document in which an individual specifies what medical treatments should and should not be done for him in the event he is unable to make his own medical care decisions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An advanced directive. This legal document allows an individual to specify their preferences for medical treatments in case they are unable to make decisions. It includes instructions on what treatments to receive or avoid. A DNR order (choice A) specifically pertains to resuscitation preferences only. A will (choice B) outlines the distribution of assets after death, not medical care decisions. Personal directive (choice D) is not a commonly used term for this type of legal document.