ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient withClostridiumdifficile. Which nursing actions will have thegreatest impact in preventing the spread of the bacteria?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Proper hand hygiene techniques Rationale: 1. Clostridium difficile is mainly spread through contact with contaminated surfaces. 2. Proper hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of bacteria. 3. Hand hygiene removes bacteria from hands, reducing the risk of transmission. 4. Appropriate disposal (A) is important but doesn't directly prevent spread. Monthly in-services (B) and mandatory cultures (C) are not as effective as hand hygiene in preventing transmission.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse in an allergy clinic is educating a new patient about the pathology of the patients health problem. What response should the nurse describe as a possible consequence of histamine release?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle. Histamine release can lead to bronchoconstriction, which narrows the airways and causes difficulty in breathing. This is a common symptom in allergic reactions like asthma. Constriction of small venules (Choice A) is not a typical consequence of histamine release. Dilation of large blood vessels (Choice C) is more associated with histamine's role in increasing vascular permeability. Decreased secretions from gastric and mucosal cells (Choice D) is not directly related to histamine's effects on smooth muscle contraction.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with Parkinsons disease is experiencing episodes of constipation that are becoming increasingly frequent and severe. The patient states that he has been achieving relief for the past few weeks by using OTC laxatives. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lets explore other options, because laxatives can have side effects and create dependency. The rationale for this is that while laxatives provide temporary relief for constipation, using them long-term can lead to dependency, electrolyte imbalances, and other side effects. The nurse should address the root cause of constipation and explore alternative strategies such as dietary changes, increased fluid intake, exercise, and bowel training. Choices A and B focus on supportive measures rather than addressing the issue of potential dependency on laxatives. Choice D suggests herbal remedies without considering the individual's specific condition and medical history.
Question 4 of 9
Spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered an abortion if it occurs before 20 weeks gestation. This is based on the medical definition of abortion as the termination of a pregnancy before the fetus is able to survive outside the womb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the criteria for defining abortion. B and D are specific conditions related to the fetus and the presence of infection, while C refers to passing products of conception intact, which can happen in both spontaneous and induced abortions.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is planning discharge education for a patient who underwent a cervical diskectomy. What strategies would the nurse assess that would aid in planning discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Care of the cervical collar Rationale: 1. Care of the cervical collar is essential post-cervical diskectomy to ensure proper immobilization and support. 2. Proper care prevents complications and promotes healing. 3. It is a crucial aspect of discharge education to prevent injury and promote recovery. Summary of other choices: B: Technique for performing neck ROM exercises - Important for rehabilitation but not directly related to discharge education post-cervical diskectomy. C: Home assessment of ABGs - Irrelevant to post-cervical diskectomy discharge education. D: Techniques for restoring nerve function - Important for recovery but not a primary focus of discharge education.
Question 6 of 9
After mastoid surgery, an 81-year-old patient has been identified as needing assistance in her home. What would be a primary focus of this patients home care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preparation of nutritious meals and avoidance of contraindicated foods. After mastoid surgery, proper nutrition is crucial for healing and recovery. Nutritious meals support the immune system and aid in tissue repair. Avoiding contraindicated foods, such as those that may cause inflammation or interfere with medications, is essential for the patient's well-being. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary focus of home care after mastoid surgery. While rest, adaptation to hearing loss, and assistance with ambulation are important, they are secondary to ensuring proper nutrition for optimal recovery in this case.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has just been diagnosed with Parkinsons disease and the nurse is planning the patients subsequent care for the home setting. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse address when educating the patients family?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for injury. Patients with Parkinson's disease are at risk for falls due to symptoms like tremors and impaired balance. Educating the family about fall prevention measures is crucial. Choice A, Risk for infection, is not directly related to Parkinson's disease. Choice B, Impaired spontaneous ventilation, is not a common concern in Parkinson's disease. Choice C, Unilateral neglect, is more commonly seen in conditions like stroke, not Parkinson's disease. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient with Parkinson's disease is addressing the risk for injury to prevent falls.
Question 8 of 9
The patient is on parenteral nutrition and is lethargic. The patient reports thirst and headache and has had increased urination. Which problem does the nurse prepare to address?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperglycemia. The patient's symptoms like lethargy, thirst, headache, increased urination are indicative of high blood sugar levels. Lethargy is a common symptom of hyperglycemia due to the body's inability to use glucose effectively. Thirst and increased urination occur as the body tries to get rid of excess glucose through urine. Headache can result from dehydration due to increased urination. To address hyperglycemia, the nurse may need to adjust the patient's parenteral nutrition, monitor blood glucose levels, and potentially administer insulin. Incorrect choices: B: Hypoglycemia - Symptoms of hypoglycemia include sweating, confusion, and shakiness, which are not present in this case. C: Hypercapnia - This is high carbon dioxide levels in the blood, typically caused by respiratory issues, not related to the symptoms described. D: Hypocapnia - This is low carbon dioxide levels
Question 9 of 9
A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of nitric oxide, which is released during sexual stimulation to relax the muscles in the penis and increase blood flow for an erection. Therefore, sexual stimulation is necessary for the medication to be effective. Explanation of other choices: B: While sildenafil is typically taken 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, it does not need to be exactly 1 hour prior. C: Facial flushing and headache are common side effects of sildenafil but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent. D: Sildenafil may cause temporary visual disturbances like changes in color vision, but permanent visual changes are rare.