ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with severe neurological impairment following a massive stroke. The primary care provider has ordered tests to detearbmirbi.ncoem b/treasit n death. The nurse understands that criteria for brain death includes what crite ria? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of cerebral blood flow. Brain death is determined by the irreversible cessation of all brain functions, including blood flow to the brain. When there is no cerebral blood flow, the brain is unable to function, leading to brain death. This criterion is essential in diagnosing brain death as it indicates a complete loss of brain function. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: - B: Absence of brainstem reflexes on neurological examination is a common sign of brain death, but it is not the primary criterion. - C: Presence of Cheyne-Stokes respirations is not indicative of brain death. It is a pattern of breathing that can be seen in various conditions, not specifically brain death. - D: Confirmation of a flat electroencephalogram is a supportive test for brain death but not the primary criterion. The absence of brain activity on an EEG can help confirm brain death but is not as definitive as the absence of cerebral blood flow.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse caring for a mechanically ventilated patient note s the high pressure alarm sounding but cannot quickly identify the cause of the alarm. The nurasbeir bn.cootme/ste stht e patient’s oxygen saturation is decreasing and heart rate and respiratory rate are increasing. What is the nurse’s priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse's priority is to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Calling the rapid response team will allow for immediate assessment by a team of healthcare professionals to address the deteriorating condition. This step takes precedence over troubleshooting the ventilator or manually ventilating the patient. Asking for a new ventilator (A) or manually ventilating the patient (D) does not address the urgent need for a comprehensive assessment and intervention. Continuing to troubleshoot the alarm (C) can delay critical interventions needed for the patient's worsening condition. Thus, calling the rapid response team is the most appropriate action to address the escalating clinical situation promptly.
Question 3 of 9
Slow continuous ultrafiltration is also known as isolated ultrafiltration and is used to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because slow continuous ultrafiltration removes excess plasma water in cases of volume overload by applying a pressure gradient across a semipermeable membrane. This process helps to achieve fluid balance without removing solutes. Choice B is incorrect because convection is not the primary mechanism of slow continuous ultrafiltration. Choice C is incorrect as dialysate is not added in slow continuous ultrafiltration. Choice D is incorrect as slow continuous ultrafiltration does not combine all three processes of ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse has been working as a staff nurse in the surgical inabteirbn.scoivme/t ecsat re unit for 2 years and is interested in certification. Which credential would be most applicable for her to seek?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: CCRN. The nurse works in a surgical unit, making CCRN (Critical Care Registered Nurse) the most applicable credential as it focuses on critical care nursing, which is relevant to the nurse's current practice. ACNPC (Acute Care Nurse Practitioner Certification) and PCCN (Progressive Care Certified Nurse) are not suitable as they are more focused on advanced practice or progressive care respectively, not directly related to surgical units. CCNS (Clinical Nurse Specialist Certification) is not the best choice as it is more geared towards advanced practice roles in specific clinical specialties, not general staff nursing.
Question 5 of 9
What were identified as the first critical care units? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Burn units. Burn units were identified as the first critical care units due to the complex and intensive care required by burn patients. These units were established to provide specialized care for burn victims, including wound management, infection control, and fluid resuscitation. Summary: - Burn units were the first critical care units due to the specialized care needed for burn patients. - Coronary care units focus on cardiac conditions, not the first identified critical care units. - Recovery rooms are for post-operative care, not specifically for critical care. - Neonatal intensive care units are specialized for newborns, not the first critical care units.
Question 6 of 9
A patient who has been declared brain dead is considered a potential organ donor. In order to proceed with donation, the nurse must understand that applicable concept?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because after brain death is confirmed, maintaining perfusion and oxygenation of organs is crucial to ensure their viability for donation. This process allows organs to be retrieved in optimal condition during the operation. Choice A is incorrect because a signed donor card is not a legal mandate for organ retrieval. Choice C is incorrect as the healthcare proxy's consent is typically required for organ donation. Choice D is incorrect because life support is not immediately withdrawn upon brain death confirmation; instead, organ preservation measures are initiated.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with hypotension and an elevated temperature after working outside on a hot day is treated in the emergency department (ED). The nurse determines that discharge teaching has been effective when the patient makes which statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I should drink sports drinks when working outside in hot weather." This statement is correct because hypotension and elevated temperature could indicate dehydration and electrolyte imbalance due to excessive sweating in hot weather. Drinking sports drinks can help replenish electrolytes lost through sweating and prevent dehydration. Incorrect choices: A: Taking salt tablets can lead to an imbalance in electrolytes and worsen the condition. B: Acetaminophen can lower fever but does not address dehydration or electrolyte imbalance. D: Moving to a cool environment when feeling confused is important but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
Question 8 of 9
Many critically ill patients experience anxiety. The nurse can reduce anxiety with which approach?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it addresses the patient's anxiety by providing clear communication and involving the patient in the care process. By explaining the turning procedure, inspecting the skin, and providing comfort through lotion application, the nurse establishes trust and promotes a sense of control for the patient. This approach helps alleviate anxiety by keeping the patient informed and engaged in their care. Choice A is incorrect because limiting family visitation may not directly address the patient's anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on routine information rather than directly addressing the patient's anxiety. Choice D is incorrect because suctioning the endotracheal tube may cause discomfort and does not address the underlying anxiety issue.
Question 9 of 9
While neuromuscular blocking agents are used in the management of some ventilated patients what is their primary mode of action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paralysis. Neuromuscular blocking agents work by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis. This is essential in ventilated patients to facilitate mechanical ventilation and prevent patient-ventilator dyssynchrony. Rationale: A: Analgesia - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide pain relief. They do not have any direct analgesic properties. B: Anticonvulsant - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not prevent or treat seizures. They do not have anticonvulsant effects. D: Sedation - While sedatives may be used in conjunction with neuromuscular blocking agents, the primary mode of action of these agents is muscle paralysis, not sedation.