ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with Huntington disease who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of malnutrition. What independent nursing action should be implemented in the patients plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Encourage the patient to keep his or her feeding area clean. This is the most appropriate independent nursing action as it promotes hygiene and reduces the risk of infection. Keeping the feeding area clean is essential in preventing complications in a patient with malnutrition. Rationales for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Firmly redirect the patient's head when feeding - This is incorrect because forceful redirection can cause distress and discomfort to the patient, potentially leading to aspiration or choking. B: Administer phenothiazines after each meal as ordered - This is incorrect as phenothiazines are not typically used for malnutrition treatment and should not be administered without a specific indication. D: Apply deep, gentle pressure around the patient's mouth to aid swallowing - This is incorrect because applying pressure around the mouth can pose a choking hazard and should not be done without proper assessment and intervention by a speech therapist or swallowing specialist.
Question 2 of 9
Which finding in the exam of a patient with a diagnosis of threatened abortion would change the diagnosis to inevitable abortion?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear fluid from vagina. In threatened abortion, there is vaginal bleeding but the cervix is closed, indicating the possibility of the pregnancy continuing. If clear fluid is present, it suggests rupture of the amniotic sac, leading to inevitable abortion. Backache (A) and pelvic pressure (D) can be common symptoms in both threatened and inevitable abortion. A rise in hCG level (B) alone does not indicate a change from threatened to inevitable abortion.
Question 3 of 9
Massage around the feces and work down to remove.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order for the massage is to start around the feces (4), then work downwards (1), followed by moving towards the sides (5), then back to the top (2), continuing to the sides again (3), and finally finishing at the top (6). This sequence ensures a thorough and effective massage process. Other choices have different orders that do not follow the logical flow of massaging around the feces and working down as specified in the question.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is 24 hours postoperative following prostatectomy and the urologist has ordered continuous bladder irrigation. What color of output should the nurse expect to find in the drainage bag?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red wine colored. Following a prostatectomy, continuous bladder irrigation is commonly used to prevent blood clots and ensure urine drainage. The output is expected to be red wine colored, indicating the presence of blood in the urine due to surgical trauma. Tea-colored (choice B) or amber (choice C) are not specific enough and do not accurately reflect the expected bloody output. Light pink (choice D) may suggest a lower level of bleeding compared to red wine color, but it is not the most accurate description for post-prostatectomy drainage.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is using laxatives three times dailyto lose weight. After stopping laxative use, the patient has difficulty with constipation and wonders if laxatives should be taken again. Which information will the nurse share with the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term laxative use can lead to the bowel becoming less responsive to stimuli, resulting in constipation. This is due to the body becoming dependent on laxatives to stimulate bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as laxatives typically do not cause trauma or scarring to the intestinal lining. Choice C is incorrect because while emollient laxatives can be helpful for constipation, long-term use is not recommended due to potential side effects. Choice D is incorrect because laxatives do not directly cause malnourishment or prevent waste production.
Question 6 of 9
A public health nurse is preparing an educational campaign to address a recent local increase in the incidence of HIV infection. The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Educational programs that focus on control and prevention. This intervention is the most crucial as it directly addresses the issue of the increasing incidence of HIV infection. By providing education on how to control and prevent the spread of HIV, the nurse can empower the community to take proactive measures to reduce transmission rates. A: Lifestyle actions that improve immune function may be helpful in general health promotion but do not directly target the prevention of HIV transmission. C: Appropriate use of standard precautions is important but is more focused on healthcare settings rather than community-wide prevention efforts. D: Screening programs for youth and young adults are valuable but may not be as effective as educational programs in preventing the spread of HIV.
Question 7 of 9
An oncology nurse is contributing to the care of a patient who has failed to respond appreciably to conventional cancer treatments. As a result, the care team is considering the possible use of biologic response modifiers (BRFs). The nurse should know that these achieve a therapeutic effect by what means?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focusing the patient's immune system exclusively on the tumor. Biologic response modifiers (BRMs) work by enhancing the body's natural defenses to target and attack cancer cells specifically. This approach helps the immune system to recognize and destroy cancer cells while minimizing harm to normal cells. A: Promoting the synthesis and release of leukocytes - This is not the primary mechanism of action for BRMs. While leukocytes play a role in the immune response, BRMs target the immune system's response to tumors. C: Potentiating the effects of chemotherapeutic agents and radiation therapy - While some BRMs may be used in combination with these treatments, their primary mode of action is not to enhance the effects of chemotherapy or radiation therapy. D: Altering the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the patient - This choice is too broad and vague. BRMs specifically aim to direct the immune response towards targeting the tumor cells, rather than altering the overall immunologic relationship
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is developing a plan to reduce data entryerrors and maintain confidentiality. Which guidelines should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Implement an automatic sign-off. This guideline helps reduce data entry errors by ensuring that all entries are completed and saved before exiting the system, thus maintaining confidentiality. Bypassing the firewall (A) would compromise data security. Creating a password with just letters (C) may not be secure enough. Using a programmed speed-dial key when faxing (D) is unrelated to reducing data entry errors or maintaining confidentiality.
Question 9 of 9
A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurses response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because several studies have indeed shown an association between BRCA-2 mutation and an increased risk of prostate cancer. BRCA-2 mutation is known to be linked to an increased risk of various cancers, including prostate cancer. This genetic mutation can be inherited and passed down through generations, leading to a higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because: B: HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) is not specifically associated with prostate cancer, and it is not an autosomal dominant mutation causing prostate cancer in men. C: TP53 gene is associated with other types of cancers, such as breast cancer, but not strongly linked to prostate cancer. D: Research has shown that genetics do play a role in the development of prostate cancer, contradicting the statement that genetics are unrelated to the disease.