ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory dist ress syndrome who is hypoxemic despite mechanical ventilation. The primary care provider (PCP) orders a nontraditional ventilator mode as part of treatment. Despite sedation and aabnirba.lcgoems/tieas,t the patient remains restless and appears to be in discomfort. The nurse informs the PCP of this assessment and anticipates what order?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neuromuscular blockade. 1. Neuromuscular blockade helps to achieve optimal ventilator synchrony by reducing patient-ventilator asynchrony and improving oxygenation in patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). 2. Despite sedation, the patient's restlessness and discomfort suggest inadequate ventilator synchrony, which can be addressed by neuromuscular blockade. 3. Continuous lateral rotation therapy (A) and prone positioning (D) are interventions for improving ventilation and oxygenation in ARDS but do not directly address patient-ventilator synchrony. 4. Guided imagery (B) is a non-pharmacological technique for relaxation and pain management, which may not address the underlying issue of ventilator synchrony in this case.
Question 2 of 9
A hospice patient develops a pressure ulcer despite proper repositioning. What should the nurse include in the care plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because implementing more aggressive wound care strategies is essential for managing pressure ulcers effectively. This includes proper wound cleaning, debridement, and dressing changes to promote healing. Adequate hydration and nutrition (choice B) are important but may not directly address the pressure ulcer. Discussing prognosis and expected outcomes (choice C) is important but may not directly impact wound healing. Encouraging increased physical activity (choice D) may be contraindicated due to the patient's condition.
Question 3 of 9
assessment, the patient is restless, heart rate has increased to 110 beats/min, respirat ions are 36 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 156/98 mm Hg. The cardiac monitor shows sin us tachycardia with 10 premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) per minute. Pulmonary artery pressures are elevated. The nurse suctions the patient and obtains pink, frothy secretio ns. Loud crackles are audible throughout lung fields. The nurse notifies the physician, who orders an ABG analysis, electrolyte levels, and a portable chest x-ray study. In comambirubn.ciocma/tteinstg with the physician, which statement indicates the nurse understands what is likely occurring with the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: “My assessment indicates potential fluid overload.” The patient is showing signs of fluid overload, such as increased heart rate, respiratory rate, elevated blood pressure, pulmonary artery pressures, frothy secretions, and crackles in lung fields. These symptoms suggest fluid is accumulating in the lungs, causing pulmonary congestion. This can lead to impaired gas exchange and respiratory distress. The nurse's recognition of these signs is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Other choices are incorrect because there are no indications of a myocardial infarction, PVCs compromising cardiac output, or a hypertensive crisis based on the given information.
Question 4 of 9
The charge nurse is responsible for making the patient ass ignments on the critical care unit. She assigns the experienced, certified nurse to care for thea abicrbu.cteomly/t eisltl patient diagnosed with sepsis who also requires continuous renal replacement therapy and mechanical ventilation. She assigns the nurse with less than 1 year of experience to two patients who are more stable. This assignment reflects implementation of what guiding framework?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Synergy model of practice. The Synergy model emphasizes matching nurse competencies with patient needs for optimal outcomes. In this scenario, the charge nurse assigned the experienced, certified nurse to a complex patient requiring specialized care (sepsis, renal replacement therapy, ventilation), aligning with the model's principle of matching nurse expertise to patient acuity. Assigning the less experienced nurse to stable patients aligns with the model's focus on optimizing patient outcomes by matching nurse competencies appropriately. A: Crew resource management model focuses on teamwork and communication to enhance safety, not specifically on nurse-patient assignments. B: National Patient Safety Goals are broad guidelines for improving patient safety, not specific to nurse-patient assignments. C: Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) model focuses on integrating quality and safety competencies into nursing education, not specifically on nurse-patient assignments.
Question 5 of 9
Which nursing interventions would best support the family of a critically ill patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because giving regular condition updates promotes transparency and communication, reducing anxiety for the family. This intervention helps them stay informed and involved in the patient's care. Choice A may lead to caregiver fatigue and is not sustainable. Choice C limits family support and may increase stress. Choice D focuses on comfort but does not address the family's need for information.
Question 6 of 9
The patient’s significant other is terrified by the prospect o f removing life-sustaining treatments from the patient and asks why anyone would do that. What explanation should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it explains that the decision to remove life-sustaining treatments is based on the fact that these treatments are not helping the patient and may actually be causing discomfort. This rationale aligns with the principle of beneficence, which emphasizes doing good and avoiding harm to the patient. It also respects the patient's autonomy by prioritizing their well-being and quality of life. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on financial reasons rather than the patient's best interest. Choice B is incorrect because it prioritizes hospital resources over individual patient care. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity and may come across as insensitive to the significant other's concerns.
Question 7 of 9
A 20-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department (ED) several hours after taking 25 to 30 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets. Which action will the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Give N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It helps replenish glutathione, which is depleted by acetaminophen metabolism. This prevents liver damage. Choice B, chelation therapy, is not indicated for acetaminophen overdose. Choice C, oxygen therapy, is not directly related to acetaminophen overdose treatment. Choice D, drinking water, will not address the overdose and may not be safe in high doses. Therefore, the best course of action is to administer N-acetylcysteine to prevent liver damage in acetaminophen overdose.
Question 8 of 9
The patient diagnosed with acute respiratory distress synd rome (ARDS) would exhibit which symptom?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in ARDS, there is a severe impairment in gas exchange leading to hypoxemia. Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration indicate poor oxygenation, a hallmark of ARDS. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels (Choice B) do not directly correlate with ARDS pathophysiology. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO2 administration (Choice C) is not characteristic of ARDS, as ARDS leads to decreased lung compliance. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation (Choice D) is not a typical finding in ARDS, as hyperventilation is usually present in an attempt to compensate for hypoxemia.
Question 9 of 9
Noninvasive diagnostic procedures used to determine kidney function include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Kidney, ureter, bladder (KUB) x-ray. This procedure is noninvasive and commonly used to assess kidney function by visualizing the size, shape, and position of the kidneys. Renal ultrasound is also noninvasive and can provide detailed images of the kidneys. However, MRI and IVP are more invasive procedures that involve the use of contrast agents and are not typically used solely for diagnostic purposes to assess kidney function. Overall, KUB x-ray and renal ultrasound are the preferred noninvasive options for evaluating kidney function.