ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute kidney injury who is being treated with hemodialysis. The patient asks if he will need dialysis for the rest of his life. Which of the following would be the best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Recovery is possible, but it may take several months.” This response is the best choice as it provides a balanced and accurate explanation to the patient. Here's the rationale: 1. Hemodialysis is often used as a temporary measure to support kidney function while allowing time for the kidneys to recover. 2. Acute kidney injury can be reversible in some cases, especially if the underlying cause is identified and treated promptly. 3. Recovery time varies for each individual, and it can indeed take several months for kidney function to improve. 4. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: - A is overly pessimistic and does not consider the potential for recovery. - B provides a specific timeframe that may not be accurate for all patients. - C is not a reliable indicator of kidney function recovery and may lead to confusion.
Question 2 of 9
An Ethiopian man with AIDS has recently been admitted to the ICU with a case of pneumonia. The man is new to the U.S. and has no health insurance. He would likely be eligible for the states Medicaid coverage, but does not understand how to access this coverage. Which competency or competencies are most needed in this situation? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Advocacy and moral agency. In this scenario, the Ethiopian man with AIDS is in a vulnerable position due to lack of health insurance and understanding of Medicaid coverage. Advocacy skills are crucial to help him navigate the complex healthcare system and access the necessary resources. Moral agency involves advocating for the patient's rights and well-being, ensuring that he receives appropriate care despite his socioeconomic status. Clinical judgment, collaboration, and systems thinking are important competencies but not as directly relevant in this specific situation of advocating for the patient's access to Medicaid coverage.
Question 3 of 9
Nociceptors differ from other nerve receptors in the body in what way?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because nociceptors are specialized nerve receptors that do not adapt much to continual pain response. This lack of adaptation allows nociceptors to continuously signal the presence of tissue-damaging stimuli, which is crucial for the perception of pain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because nociceptors do not inhibit the infiltration of neutrophils and eosinophils (B), they do play a role in the inflammatory response (C), and they transmit various types of stimuli including thermal, mechanical, and chemical, not just thermal stimuli (D).
Question 4 of 9
A patient declared brain dead is an organ donor. The following events occur: 1300 Diagnostic tests for brain death are completed. 1330 primary care provider reviews diagnostic test results and writes in the progress note that the patient is brain deaadb.i r1b.4co0m0/ tePsat tient is taken to the operating room for organ retrieval. 1800 All organs have b een retrieved for donation. The ventilator is discontinued. 1810 Cardiac monitor shows fla tline. What is the official time of death recorded in the medical record?
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is not provided, but based on the events described, the official time of death recorded in the medical record should be 1810 (Choice D). At this time, the cardiac monitor shows flatline, indicating the cessation of cardiac activity, which is the universally accepted point of declaring death. Choice A (1300) is incorrect because that is when diagnostic tests for brain death were completed, but the patient was not officially declared dead at that time. Choice B (1330) is incorrect as this is when the primary care provider reviewed the test results and documented brain death in the progress note, but the patient was not officially declared dead at this time either. Choice C (1400) is incorrect as there is no significant event occurring at this time that signifies the patient's death. Therefore, the most appropriate and official time of death recorded in the medical record would be 1810 when the cardiac monitor shows flatline.
Question 5 of 9
What strategies are appropriate for preventing deep vein tharboirbm.cbomo/steisst (DVT) and pulmonary embolus (PE) in an at-risk patient? (Select all that apply.) WWW .THENURSINGMASTERY.COM
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Graduated compression stockings. These stockings help prevent blood from pooling in the legs, reducing the risk of DVT and PE. They improve circulation and reduce venous stasis. Option B, heparin, is used for treatment, not prevention. Option C, sequential compression devices, help prevent DVT but are not as effective as compression stockings. Option D, strict bed rest, can actually increase the risk of DVT by reducing blood flow.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is assisting with endotracheal intubation and un derstands correct placement of the endotracheal tube in the trachea would be identified by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Equal bilateral breath sounds upon auscultation. This indicates proper placement of the endotracheal tube in the trachea, ensuring both lungs are being ventilated equally. Rationale: 1. Auscultation of air over the epigastrium (Choice A) is incorrect as it indicates esophageal intubation, not tracheal intubation. 2. Position above the carina verified by chest x-ray (Choice C) is incorrect as it does not confirm proper placement at the trachea. 3. Positive detection of carbon dioxide (CO2) (Choice D) is incorrect as it indicates the presence of exhaled CO2, but not necessarily proper placement in the trachea.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient whose ventilator settings i nclude 15 cm H O of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). The nurse understands that although beneficial, PEEP may result in what possible problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D - Low cardiac output secondary to increased intrathoracic pressure): 1. PEEP increases intrathoracic pressure, which can impede venous return to the heart. 2. Impaired venous return reduces preload, leading to decreased cardiac output. 3. Decreased cardiac output can result in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation. 4. Therefore, PEEP may cause low cardiac output due to increased intrathoracic pressure. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A. Fluid overload is not directly related to PEEP but more to fluid administration or kidney function. B. High cardiac index is unlikely as PEEP can decrease cardiac output. C. Hypoxemia is not a direct result of PEEP but may occur due to other factors like inadequate ventilation or oxygenation settings.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse who has been recently hired to manage the nursing staff of the ICU is concerned at the lack of evidence-based practice she sees among the staff. Which of the following would be the best step for her to take to promote incorporating evidence into clinical practice?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because introducing the staff to the PubMed search engine and assigning them topics to research on it is the most effective way to promote evidence-based practice. PubMed is a reputable database that contains a vast collection of peer-reviewed articles and research studies, making it a reliable source for evidence. By assigning specific topics, the nurse can ensure that the staff is focusing on relevant and current information, fostering a deeper understanding of evidence-based practice. Choice A is incorrect because certification in critical care nursing does not guarantee a commitment to evidence-based practice. Choice B is not as effective as it relies on passive exposure to journals rather than active engagement with specific research topics. Choice C is not the best option as using general search terms on search engines like Google or Yahoo may lead to unreliable or outdated information.
Question 9 of 9
An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tricyclic antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention, especially in the elderly. Morphine sulfate can also contribute to urinary retention. Antacids (A) and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (C) are not known to cause urinary retention. Insulin (D) does not pose a risk for urinary retention in this scenario.