ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter. Assessment findings include a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 12 5 beats/min, respiratory rate 35 breaths/min, and arterial oxygen saturation (SpO ) of 90% on a 50% venturi mask. 2 Hemodynamic values include a cardiac output (CO) of 1.0 L/min, central venous pressure (CVP) of 1 mm Hg, and a pulmonary artery occlusion pres sure (PAOP) of 3 mm Hg. The nurse questions which of the following primary health care provider’s order?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer furosemide 20 mg intravenously. In this scenario, the patient is hypotensive with a low cardiac output, low CVP, and low PAOP, indicating cardiogenic shock. Administering furosemide, a diuretic, can worsen the patient's condition by further decreasing preload. This can lead to a decrease in cardiac output and exacerbate the shock state. The other options are more appropriate: A: Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO > 94% - Correct, as improving oxygenation is essential in cardiogenic shock. B: Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour - Correct, as fluid resuscitation may be necessary to improve perfusion. C: Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes - Correct, as these tests provide valuable information about the patient's oxygenation and electrolyte balance.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury? A patient who
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a patient with a history of fluid overload due to heart failure is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury. Heart failure can lead to decreased kidney perfusion causing acute kidney injury. In this scenario, the patient's fluid overload exacerbates the situation, further compromising kidney function. Choice A is incorrect as aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury but the duration of 6 days is less concerning compared to chronic fluid overload from heart failure in choice D. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension does not directly increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Choice C is incorrect as the patient being discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy does not necessarily indicate a higher risk compared to chronic fluid overload.
Question 3 of 9
After the return of spontaneous circulation following the resuscitation of a patient who had a cardiac arrest, therapeutic hypothermia is ordered. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply external cooling device. Therapeutic hypothermia is a treatment used to protect the brain after cardiac arrest by lowering the body temperature. The nurse should use external cooling devices, such as cooling blankets or ice packs, to achieve and maintain the desired temperature. This method allows for precise temperature control and monitoring. Checking mental status every 15 minutes (choice B) is not the priority as maintaining the temperature is crucial. Avoiding sedative medications (choice C) may be necessary to accurately assess the patient's neurological status. Rewarming if the temperature is <91°F (32.8°C) (choice D) is incorrect as the goal is to maintain hypothermia for a specific duration before gradual rewarming.
Question 4 of 9
Which statement made by a staff nurse identifying guidelianbeirsb .fcoomr /pteaslt liative care would need corrected?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because palliative care is not just for the dying but also for those with serious illnesses. A: Correct - basic nursing care is essential in palliative care. B: Correct - common symptoms in palliative care include nausea, agitation, and sleep disturbance. D: Correct - palliative care aims to relieve symptoms and improve quality of life. Choice C is incorrect as it wrongly implies palliative care is only for the dying, which is a misconception.
Question 5 of 9
The patient is in the critical care unit and will receive dialysis this morning. The nurse will (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because evaluating morning lab results is crucial to monitor the patient's condition before dialysis. Abnormal results may impact the dialysis treatment plan. Option B is incorrect as administering antihypertensive medications is not directly related to dialysis. Option C is incorrect as assessing the dialysis access site is the responsibility of the dialysis team. Option D is incorrect as weighing the patient is not typically done immediately before dialysis.
Question 6 of 9
A 68-year-old patient has been in the intensive care unit for 4 days and has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed sensory perception related to sleep deprivation. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cluster nursing activities so that the patient has uninterrupted rest periods. Rationale: 1. Clustering nursing activities allows for uninterrupted rest periods, essential for improving sleep quality and addressing disturbed sensory perception. 2. Administering sedatives or opioids (Option A) can lead to drug dependence, tolerance, and adverse effects in older adults. 3. Silencing alarms (Option C) compromises patient safety by impeding timely monitoring and response to critical events. 4. Eliminating assessments (Option D) between 0100 and 0600 disregards the necessity of monitoring vital signs and assessing patient condition around the clock.
Question 7 of 9
Two unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are arguing on the unit about who deserves to take a break first. What is the most important basic guideline that the nurse should follow in resolving the conflict?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Deal with issues and not personalities. This guideline is important because it focuses on resolving the conflict based on the actual problem at hand, rather than personal biases or emotions. By addressing the issues causing the argument, the nurse can help the UAPs find a fair and logical solution. A: Requiring the UAPs to reach a compromise may not address the root cause of the conflict and could lead to further disagreements. B: Weighing the consequences is important but may not be as effective in resolving the conflict as directly addressing the issues. C: Encouraging humor may temporarily diffuse the situation but may not lead to a lasting resolution.
Question 8 of 9
When caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery (PA) pressure catheter, the nurse observes that the PA waveform indicates that the catheter is in the wedged position. Which action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Notify the health care provider. When the PA waveform indicates the catheter is in the wedged position, it means the catheter tip is in the pulmonary artery, potentially causing complications. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to assess and reposition the catheter to prevent further issues. Zero balancing the transducer (A) or activating the fast flush system (B) are not appropriate actions for this situation. Deflating and reinflating the PA balloon (D) could exacerbate the issue and should only be done under the guidance of the healthcare provider.
Question 9 of 9
When assessing the patient for hypoxemia, the nurse recognizes what as an early sign of the effect of hypoxemia on the cardiovascular system?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Hypoxemia results in decreased oxygen levels in the blood, stimulating the body to increase heart rate to improve oxygen delivery. Tachycardia is an early sign of the cardiovascular system compensating for hypoxemia. Heart block (A) is a disruption in the electrical conduction within the heart and is not directly related to hypoxemia. Restlessness (B) is a non-specific sign and can be caused by various factors. Tachypnea (D) is an increased respiratory rate, which is a response to hypoxemia but not a direct effect on the cardiovascular system.