ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a bowel resection. Which of the following would indicate that the patient’s gastrointestinal tract is resuming normal function?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presence of flatus. This indicates normal gastrointestinal function post-bowel resection. Flatus production signifies peristalsis and passage of gas through the intestines, indicating that the bowels are working. A, firm abdomen, may indicate distention or ileus, not normal function. C, excessive thirst, is unrelated to bowel function. D, absent bowel sounds, may indicate ileus or bowel obstruction, not normal function.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with diabetes mellitus. A client with diabetes mellitus should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Wash and inspect the feet daily. This is important for clients with diabetes mellitus to prevent complications like foot ulcers. Daily foot care helps detect any issues early. Choice A is incorrect as it is not recommended to use commercial preparations without medical advice. Choice C is incorrect as walking barefoot can increase the risk of injury and infection. Choice D is incorrect as cutting toenails by rounding edges can lead to ingrown toenails, which can be dangerous for clients with diabetes.
Question 3 of 9
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Safety First - The nurse's priority is patient safety. Without vital signs, medication administration can be unsafe. Step 2: Accountability - The nurse must ensure accurate and timely vital signs recording before making clinical decisions. Step 3: Delegation - Asking the NAP to record vital signs aligns with their role and helps maintain a reliable record. Step 4: Proactive Approach - By having the NAP record vital signs, the nurse can make informed decisions based on accurate data. Summary: A: Incorrect - Proceeding with medications without vital signs can risk patient safety. B: Incorrect - Waiting to review vital signs later can delay necessary interventions. D: Incorrect - Omitting vital signs is negligent and compromises patient care.
Question 4 of 9
Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. This is the only choice that aligns with NANDA-I approved nursing diagnoses. Acute pain is a common nursing diagnosis that focuses on addressing a patient's immediate discomfort. NANDA-I emphasizes the importance of using standardized nursing diagnoses to improve communication and ensure proper interventions. Sore throat (A) and sleep apnea (C) are symptoms or medical diagnoses, not specific nursing diagnoses. Heart failure (D) is a medical diagnosis and not a NANDA-I approved nursing diagnosis.
Question 5 of 9
A client who is scheduled for a parathyroidectomy is worried about having to wear a scarf around his neck after surgery. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse document in the care plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disturbed body image related to the incision scar. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate as the client's concern about wearing a scarf post-surgery indicates a potential disturbance in body image due to the visible scar. The nurse should address the client's emotional response and offer support to help cope with the change in appearance. A: Risk for impaired physical mobility due to surgery - This choice is not directly related to the client's worry about wearing a scarf and focuses more on physical limitations post-surgery. B: Ineffective denial related to poor coping mechanisms - This choice does not address the specific body image concern expressed by the client. D: Risk of injury related to surgical outcomes - This choice does not address the client's emotional response to the scar and focuses on physical safety risks instead.
Question 6 of 9
A patient admitted with gastrointestinal tract bleeding has a hemoglobin level of 6 g/dL. She asks the nurse why she feels SOB. Which response is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hemoglobin carries oxygen to the tissues, and with a low hemoglobin level of 6 g/dL, there is insufficient oxygen-carrying capacity to meet the body's needs, leading to shortness of breath (SOB). Choice A is incorrect as anemia affects oxygen transport, not absorption. Choice C is incorrect as anemia affects oxygen delivery, not nutrient delivery. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for SOB in this scenario is the lack of oxygen-carrying capacity due to low hemoglobin levels, not lung damage from blood loss.
Question 7 of 9
A febrile patient’s fluid output is in excess of normal because of diaphoresis. The nurse should plan fluid replacement based on the knowledge that insensible losses in an afebrile person are normally not greater than:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (600ml/24hr) because insensible fluid losses in an afebrile person are typically around 600ml per 24 hours. Insensible losses include water lost through the skin as sweat and through the lungs during respiration. These losses are not easily quantifiable but are estimated to be around 600ml/day in normal circumstances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are either too low (A and B) or too high (D) compared to the normal range of insensible fluid losses. Selecting C as the correct answer is based on the understanding of physiological principles related to fluid balance and normal body functions.
Question 8 of 9
Why does the nurse instruct the client to avoid Valsalva maneuvers?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because performing Valsalva maneuver can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure, causing the client to lose consciousness. This occurs due to the increased intra-abdominal pressure leading to decreased venous return to the heart. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the consequences of Valsalva maneuver. Option A stating that the client's blood pressure will decrease momentarily is incorrect as it actually increases initially. Option C suggesting that the client may suffer from a myocardial infarction is incorrect as Valsalva maneuver does not directly cause heart attacks. Option D implying that the client's blood pressure will increase momentarily is also incorrect as the immediate effect is a rise followed by a significant drop.
Question 9 of 9
A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup for suspected thyroid cancer. What is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Papillary carcinoma. This is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults, accounting for about 80% of cases. It is typically slow-growing and has a good prognosis. Papillary carcinoma arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Follicular carcinoma (choice A) is less common than papillary carcinoma and arises from the follicular cells as well. Anaplastic carcinoma (choice B) is a highly aggressive and rare form of thyroid cancer. Medullary carcinoma (choice C) originates from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland and is not as common as papillary carcinoma. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is D, papillary carcinoma, due to its high prevalence and relatively favorable prognosis.