ATI RN
Med Surg Cardiovascular Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted to the coronary care unit following an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and percutaneous coronary intervention the previous day. Teaching for this patient would include
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because teaching the patient about when cardiac rehabilitation will begin is crucial for their recovery post-AMI and percutaneous coronary intervention. Cardiac rehabilitation plays a vital role in improving outcomes and quality of life for these patients. Option B, C, and D are incorrect as emotional responses to AMI, information regarding discharge medications, and pathophysiology of coronary artery disease are important but not the immediate priority for a patient in this situation.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse administers heparin to a client with deep vein thrombophlebitis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time). PTT measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy by assessing the clotting time. Monitoring PTT helps ensure the therapeutic range of heparin is maintained to prevent clot formation. Incorrect Choices: B: HCT (Hematocrit) - measures the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, not specific to heparin monitoring. C: CBC (Complete Blood Count) - provides overall information about blood cells, not specific to heparin monitoring. D: PT (Prothrombin Time) - used to monitor Warfarin therapy, not heparin.
Question 3 of 5
A client experiences acute myocardial ischemia. The nurse administers oxygen and sublingual nitroglycerin. When assessing an electrocardiogram (ECG) for evidence that blood flow to the myocardium has improved, the nurse should focus on the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Return of the ST segment to baseline. This change indicates reperfusion of the myocardium, restoring blood flow and reducing ischemia. Widening of the QRS complex (A) suggests conduction abnormalities, not improved blood flow. Frequency of ectopic beats (B) can be a sign of ongoing myocardial damage. Presence of a significant Q wave (D) indicates a prior myocardial infarction, not immediate improvement in blood flow. Therefore, focusing on the return of the ST segment to baseline is crucial for assessing myocardial reperfusion.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for an infant with tetralogy of Fallot. Which drug should the nurse anticipate administering during a tet spell?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: During a tet spell in tetralogy of Fallot, there is a sudden decrease in pulmonary blood flow, leading to cyanosis and hypoxia. Meperidine (Demerol) is the drug of choice due to its rapid onset and ability to increase systemic vascular resistance, improving blood flow to the lungs. Propranolol (A) may worsen the cyanosis by decreasing pulmonary blood flow. Morphine (B) and Furosemide (D) do not address the underlying problem of decreased pulmonary blood flow and are not indicated during a tet spell.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who had a permanent pacemaker inserted because of a complete heart block. The nurse determines that which of the following client outcomes indicates a successful procedure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a successful permanent pacemaker insertion for complete heart block should result in the client's ECG monitor showing paced beats at the appropriate rate. In complete heart block, the electrical signals from the atria do not reach the ventricles, leading to a slow heart rate. The pacemaker is designed to stimulate the ventricles to contract at a set rate, ensuring an adequate heart rate. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically address the key outcome of a successful permanent pacemaker insertion, which is to establish an appropriate heart rate through pacing. Therefore, they are incorrect.