ATI RN
clinical skills exam questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent pituitary surgery 12 hours ago. The nurse will give priority to monitoring the patient carefully for which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemic shock. After pituitary surgery, patients are at risk for hypovolemic shock due to potential intraoperative blood loss and fluid shifts. Monitoring for signs of shock, such as hypotension and tachycardia, is crucial for early intervention. A: Congestive heart failure is less likely immediately post-surgery. C: Infection is a concern but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. D: Volume overload is not a common immediate complication of pituitary surgery.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with type 1 diabetes who is receiving a continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion via an insulin pump contacts the clinic to report mechanical failure of the infusion pump. The nurse instructs the patient to begin monitoring for signs of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: diabetic ketoacidosis. When an insulin pump fails, the patient may experience a sudden decrease in insulin delivery, leading to a potential rise in blood glucose levels. This can trigger diabetic ketoacidosis, characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis. Monitoring for signs such as increased thirst, frequent urination, fruity breath odor, and rapid breathing is crucial. Incorrect choices: A: Adrenal insufficiency is not directly related to insulin pump failure. C: Hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state is more common in type 2 diabetes and typically occurs with extreme hyperglycemia, not sudden pump failure. D: Hypoglycemia is less likely with pump failure due to decreased insulin delivery.
Question 3 of 9
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. CRRT removes solutes and water slowly to avoid hemodynamic instability. 2. Slow removal better tolerates fluid and electrolyte shifts in critically ill patients. 3. Unlike intermittent hemodialysis, CRRT provides continuous, gentle therapy. 4. Choice A is incorrect as both CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis use a hemofilter. 5. Choice B is incorrect as CRRT does not provide faster solute and water removal. 6. Choice C is incorrect as CRRT allows for diffusion to occur, albeit at a slower rate. Summary: Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) removes solutes and water slowly to prevent hemodynamic instability, making it a gentler and more continuous process compared to intermittent hemodialysis. The other choices are incorrect as CRRT does use a hemofilter, does not provide faster removal, and still allows for diffusion to occur.
Question 4 of 9
The patient has been admitted to the hospital with nausea and vomiting that started 5 days earlier. Blood pressure is 80/44 mm Hg and heart rate is 122 beats/min; the patient has not voided in 8 hours, and the bladder is not distended. The nurse anticipates a prescription for “stat” administration of
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: fluid replacement with 0.45% saline. The patient's symptoms suggest dehydration and hypovolemia, indicated by low blood pressure, elevated heart rate, and lack of urine output. Fluid replacement with isotonic saline would help restore intravascular volume and improve blood pressure. Blood transfusion (A) is not indicated without evidence of significant blood loss. Inotropic agents (C) are used to improve cardiac function, which is not the primary issue in this case. Antiemetics (D) may help with nausea and vomiting but do not address the underlying cause of hypovolemia.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse has been assigned the following patients. Which patients require assessment of blood glucose control as a nursing priority? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient with acute pancreatitis receiving TPN is at risk for hyperglycemia due to the high glucose content in TPN. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: The 18-year-old male post-surgery for a fractured femur does not have a direct correlation to blood glucose control assessment. B: The 29-year-old female undergoing evaluation for pheochromocytoma is not directly related to blood glucose control assessment. D: The 62-year-old morbidly obese female post-hysterectomy for ovarian cancer does not specifically require immediate blood glucose control assessment.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes is being transitioned from an infusion of intravenous (IV) regular insulin to an intensive insulin therapy regimen of insulin glargine and insulin aspart. How should the nurse manage this transition in insulin delivery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Discontinue the IV infusion and administer the Lantus insulin at bedtime. This is the correct approach because insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting basal insulin that provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day and night. By administering it at bedtime, it mimics the basal insulin secretion in a person without diabetes. This helps maintain stable blood sugar levels overnight. Choice A is incorrect because continuing the IV insulin infusion for 24 hours alongside insulin glargine is unnecessary and may lead to insulin overdose. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV infusion in several hours without administering the long-acting insulin can lead to inadequate insulin coverage. Choice C is incorrect because insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin that should be given with meals, not as a basal insulin replacement at bedtime.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent pituitary surgery 12 hours ago. The nurse will give priority to monitoring the patient carefully for which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemic shock. After pituitary surgery, patients are at risk for hypovolemic shock due to potential intraoperative blood loss and fluid shifts. Monitoring for signs of shock, such as hypotension and tachycardia, is crucial for early intervention. A: Congestive heart failure is less likely immediately post-surgery. C: Infection is a concern but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. D: Volume overload is not a common immediate complication of pituitary surgery.
Question 8 of 9
Acute adrenal crisis is caused by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: deficiency of corticosteroids. Acute adrenal crisis is caused by a sudden and severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone, which are essential corticosteroids produced by the adrenal glands. Without these hormones, the body cannot regulate blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and respond to stress adequately. Acute renal failure (choice A) does not directly lead to adrenal crisis. High doses of corticosteroids (choice C) can suppress the adrenal glands but do not cause acute adrenal crisis. Overdose of testosterone (choice D) does not impact the production of cortisol and aldosterone, thus not causing acute adrenal crisis.
Question 9 of 9
The patient has a temporary percutaneous catheter in place for treatment of acute kidney injury. The catheter has been in place for 5 days. The nurse should
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: evaluate the patient for signs and symptoms of infection. After 5 days, infection risk increases. Signs of infection include fever, redness, swelling, and tenderness at the catheter site. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to prevent complications. A: Routine dialysis catheter change is not indicated after 5 days. C: Teaching long-term use is incorrect as temporary catheters are not meant for extended use. D: Using lumens for fluid administration can increase infection risk and is not recommended.