ATI RN
clinical skills exam questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent pituitary surgery 12 hours ago. The nurse will give priority to monitoring the patient carefully for which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemic shock. After pituitary surgery, patients are at risk for hypovolemic shock due to potential intraoperative blood loss and fluid shifts. Monitoring for signs of shock, such as hypotension and tachycardia, is crucial for early intervention. A: Congestive heart failure is less likely immediately post-surgery. C: Infection is a concern but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. D: Volume overload is not a common immediate complication of pituitary surgery.
Question 2 of 9
The patient has a temporary percutaneous catheter in place for treatment of acute kidney injury. The catheter has been in place for 5 days. The nurse should
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: evaluate the patient for signs and symptoms of infection. After 5 days, infection risk increases. Signs of infection include fever, redness, swelling, and tenderness at the catheter site. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to prevent complications. A: Routine dialysis catheter change is not indicated after 5 days. C: Teaching long-term use is incorrect as temporary catheters are not meant for extended use. D: Using lumens for fluid administration can increase infection risk and is not recommended.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes is being transitioned from an infusion of intravenous (IV) regular insulin to an intensive insulin therapy regimen of insulin glargine and insulin aspart. How should the nurse manage this transition in insulin delivery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Discontinue the IV infusion and administer the Lantus insulin at bedtime. This is the correct approach because insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting basal insulin that provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day and night. By administering it at bedtime, it mimics the basal insulin secretion in a person without diabetes. This helps maintain stable blood sugar levels overnight. Choice A is incorrect because continuing the IV insulin infusion for 24 hours alongside insulin glargine is unnecessary and may lead to insulin overdose. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV infusion in several hours without administering the long-acting insulin can lead to inadequate insulin coverage. Choice C is incorrect because insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin that should be given with meals, not as a basal insulin replacement at bedtime.
Question 4 of 9
An elderly female patient has presented to the emergency department with altered mental status, hypothermia, and clinical signs of heart failure. Myxedema is suspected. Which of the following laboratory findings support this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): Elevated T and T3/T4 levels are indicative of primary hypothyroidism, such as myxedema. In this case, the patient presents with classic symptoms of hypothyroidism, including altered mental status, hypothermia, and heart failure. Elevated T3/T4 levels confirm the diagnosis. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone is associated with adrenal disorders, not hypothyroidism. B: Elevated cortisol levels suggest Cushing's syndrome, a condition of excess cortisol production, not hypothyroidism. D: Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone is seen in primary hypothyroidism, but in myxedema, the issue is not with TSH but with T3/T4 levels.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of head trauma. The nurse notes that the patient’s urine output has increased tremendously over the past 18 hours. The nurse suspects that the patient may be developing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A patient with head trauma may develop diabetes insipidus due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This results in excessive urine output and thirst. Other options are incorrect because: B: Diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with high blood sugar and ketones, not increased urine output. C: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is characterized by extreme hyperglycemia, not increased urine output. D: Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone results in decreased urine output due to excess ADH.
Question 6 of 9
The patient has been admitted to the hospital with nausea and vomiting that started 5 days earlier. Blood pressure is 80/44 mm Hg and heart rate is 122 beats/min; the patient has not voided in 8 hours, and the bladder is not distended. The nurse anticipates a prescription for “stat” administration of
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: fluid replacement with 0.45% saline. The patient's symptoms suggest dehydration and hypovolemia, indicated by low blood pressure, elevated heart rate, and lack of urine output. Fluid replacement with isotonic saline would help restore intravascular volume and improve blood pressure. Blood transfusion (A) is not indicated without evidence of significant blood loss. Inotropic agents (C) are used to improve cardiac function, which is not the primary issue in this case. Antiemetics (D) may help with nausea and vomiting but do not address the underlying cause of hypovolemia.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury? A patient who
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient was recently discharged after a prolonged course of aminoglycoside therapy, which is a known risk factor for acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic effects. Choice A is incorrect because although aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury, the duration of therapy is shorter in this case. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension is not a significant risk factor for acute kidney injury. Choice D is incorrect because fluid overload from heart failure may lead to other complications but is not directly associated with acute kidney injury.
Question 8 of 9
In determining the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine is obtained. If a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible,
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because if a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible, a standardized formula can be used to estimate the GFR. This is typically done using the patient's serum creatinine level, age, sex, and race. It is a validated method when direct measurement is not feasible. A: Incorrect. It is still possible to estimate GFR using formulas when 24-hour urine collection is not possible. B: Incorrect. BUN alone is not sufficient to accurately determine renal function. C: Incorrect. BUN/Creatinine ratio is not a direct measure of GFR and may be influenced by other factors.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the left flank area, and is evaluating the patient’s urinalysis results. The nurse should become concerned when
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine indicates kidney damage, as these are not normally found in urine. A: Creatinine levels should be similar in blood and urine for proper kidney function. B: Sodium and chloride are normal components of urine. C: Uric acid levels can vary in urine and serum. Therefore, D is the correct answer as it signals potential kidney injury.