ATI RN
clinical skills exam questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent pituitary surgery 12 hours ago. The nurse will give priority to monitoring the patient carefully for which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemic shock. After pituitary surgery, patients are at risk for hypovolemic shock due to potential intraoperative blood loss and fluid shifts. Monitoring for signs of shock, such as hypotension and tachycardia, is crucial for early intervention. A: Congestive heart failure is less likely immediately post-surgery. C: Infection is a concern but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. D: Volume overload is not a common immediate complication of pituitary surgery.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the left flank area, and is evaluating the patient’s urinalysis results. The nurse should become concerned when
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine indicates kidney damage, as these are not normally found in urine. A: Creatinine levels should be similar in blood and urine for proper kidney function. B: Sodium and chloride are normal components of urine. C: Uric acid levels can vary in urine and serum. Therefore, D is the correct answer as it signals potential kidney injury.
Question 3 of 9
Continuous venovenous hemodialysis is used to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because continuous venovenous hemodiafiltration (CVVHDF) combines ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis to maximize fluid and solute removal. Ultrafiltration removes plasma water, convection removes fluids and solutes, and dialysis facilitates solute removal through diffusion. Choice A is incorrect because convection alone does not remove solutes, but CVVHDF combines convection with other methods. Choice B is incorrect because CVVHDF is not specifically used for volume overload, although it does remove fluids. Choice C is incorrect because CVVHDF does not involve adding dialysate to remove solutes; instead, it relies on diffusion for solute removal. In summary, the correct answer D is the best choice as it encompasses all the components needed for comprehensive fluid and solute removal in CVVHDF.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is a high-priority nursing diagnosis for both diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid volume deficient. Both diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome can lead to severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Addressing fluid volume deficiency is crucial to stabilize the patient's condition. Choice A is not the priority as the main concern is the fluid imbalance, not activity intolerance. Hyperthermia (choice C) may be present but is not the primary concern compared to fluid volume deficit. Impaired nutrition (choice D) is not the immediate priority in these emergency situations. In summary, maintaining fluid balance is essential to manage both conditions effectively.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient with a new arteriovenous fistula, but does not hear a bruit or feel a thrill. Pulses distal to the fistula are not palpable. The nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: notify the provider immediately. Lack of bruit, thrill, and distal pulse indicates potential complications like thrombosis or occlusion in the arteriovenous fistula. Prompt provider notification is crucial for timely intervention to prevent further complications such as ischemia or access failure. Reassessing the patient in an hour (A) may delay necessary intervention. Raising the arm above the level of the patient's heart (B) does not address the underlying issue. Applying warm packs (D) could worsen the situation if there is a clot present.
Question 6 of 9
Acute adrenal crisis is caused by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: deficiency of corticosteroids. Acute adrenal crisis is caused by a sudden and severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone, which are essential corticosteroids produced by the adrenal glands. Without these hormones, the body cannot regulate blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and respond to stress adequately. Acute renal failure (choice A) does not directly lead to adrenal crisis. High doses of corticosteroids (choice C) can suppress the adrenal glands but do not cause acute adrenal crisis. Overdose of testosterone (choice D) does not impact the production of cortisol and aldosterone, thus not causing acute adrenal crisis.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury? A patient who
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient was recently discharged after a prolonged course of aminoglycoside therapy, which is a known risk factor for acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic effects. Choice A is incorrect because although aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury, the duration of therapy is shorter in this case. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension is not a significant risk factor for acute kidney injury. Choice D is incorrect because fluid overload from heart failure may lead to other complications but is not directly associated with acute kidney injury.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes is being transitioned from an infusion of intravenous (IV) regular insulin to an intensive insulin therapy regimen of insulin glargine and insulin aspart. How should the nurse manage this transition in insulin delivery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Discontinue the IV infusion and administer the Lantus insulin at bedtime. This is the correct approach because insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting basal insulin that provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day and night. By administering it at bedtime, it mimics the basal insulin secretion in a person without diabetes. This helps maintain stable blood sugar levels overnight. Choice A is incorrect because continuing the IV insulin infusion for 24 hours alongside insulin glargine is unnecessary and may lead to insulin overdose. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV infusion in several hours without administering the long-acting insulin can lead to inadequate insulin coverage. Choice C is incorrect because insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin that should be given with meals, not as a basal insulin replacement at bedtime.
Question 9 of 9
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. CRRT removes solutes and water slowly to avoid hemodynamic instability. 2. Slow removal better tolerates fluid and electrolyte shifts in critically ill patients. 3. Unlike intermittent hemodialysis, CRRT provides continuous, gentle therapy. 4. Choice A is incorrect as both CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis use a hemofilter. 5. Choice B is incorrect as CRRT does not provide faster solute and water removal. 6. Choice C is incorrect as CRRT allows for diffusion to occur, albeit at a slower rate. Summary: Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) removes solutes and water slowly to prevent hemodynamic instability, making it a gentler and more continuous process compared to intermittent hemodialysis. The other choices are incorrect as CRRT does use a hemofilter, does not provide faster removal, and still allows for diffusion to occur.