The nurse is caring for a patient who is a recent immigrant and has limited English proficiency. Which of the following is the best action the nurse should take?

Questions 84

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

health assessment test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse is caring for a patient who is a recent immigrant and has limited English proficiency. Which of the following is the best action the nurse should take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use a professional interpreter or translation services to communicate effectively. This is the best action because it ensures accurate communication and understanding between the nurse and the patient. Professional interpreters are trained to accurately convey information while respecting cultural nuances. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Using medical jargon can confuse the patient further and hinder effective communication. B: Speaking loudly and slowly can come across as patronizing and does not address the language barrier. D: Relying on the patient's family for translation can lead to miscommunication or breaches of patient confidentiality.

Question 2 of 9

What is the priority nursing action for a client with a suspected stroke?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Oxygenation is the priority in stroke management to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the brain. Oxygen therapy can help reduce hypoxia, which is crucial in the acute phase of a stroke. Administering aspirin (B) is important but comes after ensuring oxygenation. Administering thrombolytics (C) requires proper assessment and diagnostic confirmation, not an immediate priority. Placing the client in a supine position (D) may worsen stroke symptoms if there is compromised blood flow, so it is not recommended as the initial action.

Question 3 of 9

Which intervention should the nurse implement for a client who is experiencing a seizure?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering antiepileptic medications. This is because during an active seizure, the priority is to stop the seizure activity. Antiepileptic medications are specifically designed to prevent or reduce the frequency and intensity of seizures. Placing the client on their side and protecting their head (choice A) is important for safety but does not address stopping the seizure. Loosening clothing and ensuring safety (choice B) is also important but does not directly address the seizure itself. Monitoring airway and giving oxygen (choice C) is crucial but does not actively stop the seizure. Therefore, administering antiepileptic medications is the most appropriate intervention to address the root cause of the seizure.

Question 4 of 9

What is the most appropriate action for a client with a history of asthma who is experiencing wheezing?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer albuterol. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps open the airways, relieving wheezing in asthma patients. It is the first-line treatment for acute asthma exacerbations. Antihistamines (B) do not treat asthma symptoms. Monitoring for infection (C) is important but not the immediate action for wheezing. Epinephrine (D) is used for severe allergic reactions, not routine asthma management.

Question 5 of 9

A patient keeps saying, "I feel hot. Hot, cot, rot, tot, got. I'm a spot.' This is an illustration of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clanging. Clanging refers to the phenomenon where words are chosen based on sound rather than meaning. In this case, the patient's speech demonstrates a pattern of words that rhyme or have similar sounds, despite lacking coherence or logical connection. This behavior is commonly seen in individuals with conditions like schizophrenia. Incorrect choices: A: Blocking - Blocking refers to sudden interruption or cessation of speech. This does not apply to the scenario described. C: Echolalia - Echolalia involves repetition of words or phrases spoken by others, not self-generated word patterns like in the scenario. D: Neologism - Neologism refers to the creation of new words or phrases with unique meanings, which is not reflected in the patient's speech pattern.

Question 6 of 9

A 47-year-old woman who is a recent immigrant to Canada is being seen at the clinic today for her uncontrolled diabetes. The nurse knows that the patient lives with her husband and a large extended family. The nurse concludes that part of the patient's inability to maintain and comply with her diet and diabetic regime is the foods that this patient eats. This conclusion is an example of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: culturalism. The nurse's conclusion that the patient's inability to maintain her diet and diabetic regime is due to the foods she eats reflects culturalism. Culturalism refers to the belief that a person's behaviors and beliefs are solely determined by their culture. In this case, the nurse is attributing the patient's struggles solely to her cultural background without considering other factors. A: Cultural sensitivity is about being aware and respectful of different cultures, but it does not involve making assumptions based on culture alone. B: Cultural safety is about creating a safe and respectful environment for individuals from different cultures, but it does not involve making assumptions about behavior solely based on culture. C: Cultural perspective involves understanding different cultural viewpoints, but it does not involve making assumptions about behavior solely based on culture. In summary, the nurse's conclusion is an example of culturalism as it oversimplifies the patient's situation by attributing her struggles solely to her cultural background.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following statements about the mental health examination is true?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the mental health examination should be integrated into the health history interview. This allows for a comprehensive understanding of the patient's mental health status. Gathering mental health information during the health history interview is crucial as it provides insight into the patient's current mental state, past history, and potential risk factors. This integrated approach is efficient and effective in assessing the patient's mental health needs. A is incorrect because while family input can be valuable, it is not always the best or only resource for information about coping skills. C is incorrect as integrating the mental health examination into the health history interview should not necessarily take an enormous amount of extra time if done efficiently. D is incorrect as a complete mental health examination may not always be necessary to assess the patient's level of functioning; integrating mental health information into the health history interview can often provide sufficient insight.

Question 8 of 9

What should a nurse assess for in a client with an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspect for visible pulsation. This is because an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis should have a visible pulsation, indicating proper blood flow. Palpating for thrill (B) and auscultating for bruit (C) are also common assessments for an arteriovenous fistula, but inspecting for visible pulsation is the most direct and reliable way to assess the patency of the fistula. Percussing for dullness (D) is not relevant in this context as it does not provide information about the vascular access site.

Question 9 of 9

Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: variable decelerations. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that vary in depth, duration, and timing, which can indicate cord compression. The variability in these decelerations suggests that the umbilical cord is being compressed intermittently. Early decelerations (B) are usually caused by head compression during contractions and mirror the contractions, not indicating cord compression. Bradycardia (C) is a slow heart rate, which can be caused by various factors but is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (D) is a fast heart rate, which can also be caused by various factors but is not typically associated with cord compression.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days