ATI RN
clinical skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone major abdominal surgery. The nurse notices that the patient’s urine output has been less than 20 mL/hour for the past 2 hours. The patient’s blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and the pulse is 110 beats/min. Previously, the pulse was 90 beats/min with a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse should
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Urine output < 20 mL/hour indicates potential hypoperfusion. 2. Decreased urine output with hypotension and tachycardia suggests inadequate fluid resuscitation. 3. Administering a normal saline bolus can help improve perfusion and stabilize blood pressure. 4. Contacting the provider promptly for orders is crucial in managing this acute situation. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B. Delaying reporting to the provider risks worsening the patient's condition. C. Continuing to evaluate urine output without intervention can lead to further deterioration. D. Ignoring the urine output due to potential postrenal causes overlooks the urgent need for fluid resuscitation.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is providing insulin education for an elderly patient with long-standing diabetes. A prescription has been written for the patient to take 20 units of insulin glargine at 10 PM nightly. The nurse should instruct the patient that the peak of the insulin action for this agent is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: peakless. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with a smooth, consistent release of insulin over 24 hours, providing a steady level of insulin without a pronounced peak. This characteristic helps in maintaining stable blood glucose levels. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they refer to peak values that do not apply to insulin glargine.
Question 3 of 9
The patient has just returned from having an arteriovenous fistula placed. The patient asks, “When will they be able to use this and take this other catheter out?” The nurse should reply,
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “The fistula will be usable in about 4 to 6 weeks.” This is because arteriovenous fistulas typically require a maturation period of 4 to 6 weeks before they can be used for dialysis. During this time, the fistula will develop into a strong, durable access point for hemodialysis. Choice A is incorrect because the fistula needs time to mature before it can be used, and immediate use may damage it. Choice B is incorrect as it underestimates the maturation period required. Choice D is incorrect as the maturation time does not depend on the manufacturer but on the patient's physiology and healing process.
Question 4 of 9
The removal of plasma water and some low–molecular weight particles by using a pressure or osmotic gradient is known as
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: ultrafiltration. Ultrafiltration involves the removal of plasma water and low-molecular weight particles using a pressure or osmotic gradient. This process allows small molecules to pass through a semipermeable membrane while retaining larger molecules. Dialysis (A) involves the removal of waste products and excess fluids from the blood, while diffusion (B) is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to low concentration. Clearance (C) refers to the rate at which a substance is removed from the blood by a specific organ or process. Ultrafiltration specifically targets the removal of plasma water and low-molecular weight particles through a pressure or osmotic gradient, making it the correct choice in this context.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the 83-year-old long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimer's disease who recently developed influenza is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). This patient has multiple risk factors for HHS, including age, type 2 diabetes, advanced Alzheimer's disease, and the added stress of influenza, which can exacerbate hyperglycemia. The combination of these factors can lead to severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances characteristic of HHS. Choice A is incorrect because although excessive exercise can lead to hypoglycemia in individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is not a risk factor for HHS. Choice B is incorrect as forgetting to take insulin can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetes, not HHS. Choice C is incorrect as starting insulin injections in a patient with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease does not automatically increase the risk
Question 6 of 9
In calculating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) results for women, the creatinine clearance is usually:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: the same as for men. GFR is calculated based on factors like age, weight, and serum creatinine levels, which are not directly influenced by gender. Therefore, the creatinine clearance for women is the same as for men. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no inherent biological difference between men and women that would cause a difference in creatinine clearance for GFR calculation.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department with the following clinical signs: Pulse: 132 beats/min Blood pressure: 88/50 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 32 breaths/min Temperature: 8°F Chest x-ray: Findings consistent with congestive heart failure Cardiac rhythm: Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response These signs are consistent with which disorder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The clinical signs indicate a hypermetabolic state with tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea, and potential fever, typical of a thyroid storm. The presence of congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation further support this diagnosis due to the hyperthyroid state exacerbating cardiovascular symptoms. Adrenal crisis (A) would present with hypotension and shock, but not with the hypermetabolic state seen here. Myxedema coma (B) would present with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, which are not present in this case. SIADH (C) would typically present with hyponatremia and concentrated urine, which are not seen here.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter in place. In caring for this patient, the nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing the catheter site for redness and/or swelling is essential in monitoring for signs of infection or complications. Redness and swelling can indicate infection, which requires prompt intervention. A: Applying a sterile gauze dressing is not necessary for a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter unless specified by the healthcare provider. B: Transparent dressings are typically left in place for several days unless there is a specific reason to change them more frequently. D: Using the catheter for drawing blood samples is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection and may interfere with the dialysis process.
Question 9 of 9
What psychosocial factors may potentially contribute to the development of diabetic ketoacidosis? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer A: Altered sleep/rest patterns can disrupt insulin regulation, leading to glucose imbalance and predisposing to diabetic ketoacidosis. Lack of sleep affects hormones that regulate blood sugar levels, increasing the risk of DKA. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Eating disorder can affect blood sugar control but is not a direct cause of DKA. C: Exposure to influenza may trigger stress on the body but is not a psychosocial factor contributing to DKA. D: High levels of stress can impact blood sugar levels but are not specific psychosocial factors leading to DKA.