ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the left flank area, and is evaluating the patient’s urinalysis results. The nurse should become concerned when
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine indicates possible kidney damage from the blunt trauma. This is concerning as it may suggest renal injury or dysfunction. A: Creatinine levels in the urine being similar to blood levels is normal as creatinine is filtered by the kidneys. B: Sodium and chloride being present in the urine is expected as they are components of urine. C: Urine uric acid levels matching serum levels is common as uric acid is excreted by the kidneys. In summary, the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine is abnormal and indicates potential kidney damage, making it the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse decides to seek certification in critical care nursing. What is the most important benefit for the individual nurse in becoming certified in a specialty?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because obtaining certification in critical care nursing demonstrates the nurse's personal expertise in the specialty. Certification confirms the nurse's advanced knowledge and skills, enhancing professional credibility and potential for career advancement. This choice focuses on the individual nurse's competency and dedication to the specialty. Incorrect choices: A: Salary increase is not the primary benefit of certification, although it may be a potential outcome. B: Certification is often preferred but not always required to work in critical care. D: Employers may encourage certification, but it is not always mandated.
Question 3 of 9
When planning the response to the potential use of smallpox as an agent of terrorism, the emergency department (ED) nurse manager will plan to obtain adequate quantities of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vaccine. Smallpox is a contagious and potentially deadly disease caused by the variola virus. The smallpox vaccine is the most effective way to prevent and control the spread of smallpox. By obtaining adequate quantities of the smallpox vaccine, the ED nurse manager can protect healthcare workers and the public from contracting the virus in case of a smallpox bioterrorism event. Atropine (B) is used to treat certain types of nerve agent poisoning, not smallpox. Antibiotics (C) are ineffective against viruses like smallpox. Whole blood (D) is not specifically needed for smallpox treatment.
Question 4 of 9
What nursing strategies help families cope with the stress of critical illness? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encouraging family members to make notes of questions they have for the physician during family rounds. This strategy helps families cope with the stress of critical illness by empowering them to stay informed and actively participate in the patient's care. By encouraging them to make notes, it promotes effective communication with the healthcare team and ensures that their concerns and questions are addressed promptly. Other choices are incorrect: A: Asking the family to leave during the morning bath to promote the patient’s privacy is not a helpful strategy for coping with stress as it may lead to feelings of isolation and lack of involvement in the patient's care. C: Providing continuity of nursing care is important but may not directly address the family's coping mechanisms during a critical illness. D: Providing a daily update of the patient’s condition to the family spokesperson is valuable but may not fully address the family's need for active participation and communication with the healthcare team.
Question 5 of 9
The patient has been admitted to the hospital with nausea and vomiting that started 5 days earlier. Blood pressure is 80/44 mm Hg and heart rate is 122 beats/min; the patient has not voided in 8 hours, and the bladder is not distended. The nurse anticipates a prescription for “stat” administration of
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: fluid replacement with 0.45% saline. The patient's low blood pressure, tachycardia, and lack of urine output indicate hypovolemia. Fluid replacement with saline will help restore circulating volume, improve blood pressure, and support renal perfusion. A: Blood transfusion is not indicated as the primary issue is hypovolemia, not anemia. C: Inotropic agents are used to increase cardiac contractility but are not the initial treatment for hypovolemia. D: Antiemetics may help with symptoms but do not address the underlying issue of fluid loss and hypovolemia.
Question 6 of 9
When assessing the patient for hypoxemia, the nurse recognizes what as an early sign of the effect of hypoxemia on the cardiovascular system?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Hypoxemia results in decreased oxygen levels in the blood, stimulating the body to increase heart rate to improve oxygen delivery. Tachycardia is an early sign of the cardiovascular system compensating for hypoxemia. Heart block (A) is a disruption in the electrical conduction within the heart and is not directly related to hypoxemia. Restlessness (B) is a non-specific sign and can be caused by various factors. Tachypnea (D) is an increased respiratory rate, which is a response to hypoxemia but not a direct effect on the cardiovascular system.
Question 7 of 9
A patient who is undergoing withdrawal of mechanical ventilation appears anxious and agitated. The patient is on a continuous morphine infusion and has an additional order for lorazepam 1 to 2 mg IV as needed (prn). The patient has received no lorazepam during this course of illness. What is the most appropriate nursing intearbvirbe.ncotmio/tnes tt o control agitation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis. 2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation. 3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility. 4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness. 5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation. C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression. D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following statements describes the core conc ept of the synergy model of practice?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: D is correct because the synergy model focuses on individualized care based on patients' unique needs. This model emphasizes tailoring nursing competencies to address these needs, promoting holistic care. A is incorrect as certification is not a requirement. B involves family inclusion but does not capture the core concept. C mentions collaboration but does not specifically address individualized care.
Question 9 of 9
The patient is complaining of severe flank pain when he tries to urinate. His urinalysis shows sediment and crystals along with a few bacteria. Using this information along with the clinical picture, the nurse realizes that the patient’s condition is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal. The presence of sediment, crystals, and bacteria in the urinalysis indicates an issue originating within the kidney itself. This suggests a problem like a urinary tract infection or kidney stone causing the severe flank pain. Prerenal and postrenal conditions usually involve issues outside the kidney such as dehydration or urinary tract obstruction, which are not supported by the urinalysis findings. Choice D, not renal related, is incorrect as the symptoms and urinalysis results clearly point towards a renal issue.