ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the left flank area, and is evaluating the patient’s urinalysis results. The nurse should become concerned when
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine indicates possible kidney damage from the blunt trauma. This is concerning as it may suggest renal injury or dysfunction. A: Creatinine levels in the urine being similar to blood levels is normal as creatinine is filtered by the kidneys. B: Sodium and chloride being present in the urine is expected as they are components of urine. C: Urine uric acid levels matching serum levels is common as uric acid is excreted by the kidneys. In summary, the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine is abnormal and indicates potential kidney damage, making it the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient an d is charting outside the patient’s room when the ventilator alarm sounds. What is the priorit y order for the nurse to complete these actions? (Put a comma and space between each answer choice.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. Going to the patient’s bedside is the priority as it allows the nurse to assess the patient's condition directly. 2. By being at the bedside, the nurse can quickly evaluate the patient's breathing, vital signs, and other indicators for immediate action. 3. Direct assessment enables timely intervention and avoids delays in addressing potential life-threatening situations. 4. Checking for possible causes of the alarm and reconnection to the ventilator can follow, but assessing the patient's immediate needs takes precedence. In summary, choice C is correct because direct patient assessment is the fundamental step in responding to a ventilator alarm to ensure patient safety and timely intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they focus on troubleshooting and technical aspects before directly assessing the patient's condition.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter. Assessment findings include a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 12 5 beats/min, respiratory rate 35 breaths/min, and arterial oxygen saturation (SpO ) of 90% on a 50% venturi mask. 2 Hemodynamic values include a cardiac output (CO) of 1.0 L/min, central venous pressure (CVP) of 1 mm Hg, and a pulmonary artery occlusion pres sure (PAOP) of 3 mm Hg. The nurse questions which of the following primary health care provider’s order?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer furosemide 20 mg intravenously. In this scenario, the patient is hypotensive with a low cardiac output, low CVP, and low PAOP, indicating cardiogenic shock. Administering furosemide, a diuretic, can worsen the patient's condition by further decreasing preload. This can lead to a decrease in cardiac output and exacerbate the shock state. The other options are more appropriate: A: Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO > 94% - Correct, as improving oxygenation is essential in cardiogenic shock. B: Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour - Correct, as fluid resuscitation may be necessary to improve perfusion. C: Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes - Correct, as these tests provide valuable information about the patient's oxygenation and electrolyte balance.
Question 4 of 9
The patient’s spouse is very upset because the patient, who is near death, has dyspnea and restlessness. The nurse explains what options to decrease the discomfort?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Opioid medications given as needed. Opioids are indicated for managing dyspnea and restlessness in palliative care by providing relief from symptoms. They act as potent analgesics and can help decrease the distress associated with difficult breathing and restlessness. Respiratory therapy treatments (A) and incentive spirometry treatments (C) may not address the immediate discomfort caused by dyspnea and restlessness. Increased hydration (D) may not directly alleviate the symptoms and could potentially worsen the patient's discomfort.
Question 5 of 9
Palliation care includes what goals? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Pain relief) because palliative care aims to provide comfort and improve the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses. Pain relief is a crucial goal in palliative care to alleviate physical suffering. Nausea relief (B) is also commonly addressed in palliative care, but it is not a universal goal. Psychological support (C) is an important aspect of palliative care but is not always a primary goal. Withdrawal of life-support interventions (D) is not a goal of palliative care, as palliative care focuses on symptom management and improving quality of life, not hastening death.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse caring for a mechanically ventilated patient prepares to include which strategies to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia should be into the patient’s plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drain condensate from the ventilator tubing away from the patient. This is crucial to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia as stagnant condensate can harbor harmful bacteria. By draining it away from the patient, the risk of bacterial growth and subsequent aspiration is minimized. Elevating the head of the bed (choice B) helps prevent aspiration but is not specific to preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia. Instilling normal saline during suctioning (choice C) can increase the risk of infection. Performing regular oral care with chlorhexidine (choice D) is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following statements describes the core conc ept of the synergy model of practice?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: D is correct because the synergy model focuses on individualized care based on patients' unique needs. This model emphasizes tailoring nursing competencies to address these needs, promoting holistic care. A is incorrect as certification is not a requirement. B involves family inclusion but does not capture the core concept. C mentions collaboration but does not specifically address individualized care.
Question 8 of 9
When assessing the patient for hypoxemia, the nurse recognizes what as an early sign of the effect of hypoxemia on the cardiovascular system?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Hypoxemia results in decreased oxygen levels in the blood, stimulating the body to increase heart rate to improve oxygen delivery. Tachycardia is an early sign of the cardiovascular system compensating for hypoxemia. Heart block (A) is a disruption in the electrical conduction within the heart and is not directly related to hypoxemia. Restlessness (B) is a non-specific sign and can be caused by various factors. Tachypnea (D) is an increased respiratory rate, which is a response to hypoxemia but not a direct effect on the cardiovascular system.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who is being evaluated clianbiircba.clolmy/ tfeostr brain death by a primary care provider. Which assessment findings by the nurse sup port brain death?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, absence of a corneal reflex, because in brain death, all brainstem reflexes, including the corneal reflex, are absent. This indicates complete loss of brain function. Choice B, unequal reactive pupils, is incorrect as it suggests some level of brainstem function. Choice C, withdrawal from painful stimuli, is also incorrect as it is a spinal reflex and can occur even in the absence of brain function. Choice D, core temperature of 100.8° F, is irrelevant to assessing brain death.