ATI RN
ATI Hematologic System Test Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a white blood cell (WBC) count of 8000/mm³. What concern should the nurse have about this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a WBC count of 8000/mm³ falls within the normal reference range of 4000-11000/mm³. Therefore, there is no immediate concern regarding infection or hematological disorder. Choice A is incorrect because a normal WBC count does not indicate infection. Choice B is incorrect as the count is within the normal range, not indicating increased infection risk. Choice C is incorrect as a normal WBC count does not suggest a hematological disorder.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: Do you take salicylates? Rationale: 1. Petechiae are tiny red or purple spots caused by bleeding under the skin. 2. Salicylates (like aspirin) can cause bleeding issues leading to petechiae. 3. Asking about salicylate use helps identify a potential cause for the petechiae. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Oral contraceptives are not typically associated with petechiae. C: Antiseizure drugs do not commonly cause petechiae. D: Antihypertensive drugs are not known to be a common cause of petechiae.
Question 3 of 5
When assessing a newly admitted patient, the nurse notes pallor of the skin and nail beds. The nurse should ensure that which laboratory test has been ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hemoglobin (Hgb) level. Pallor of the skin and nail beds indicates possible anemia, which is a decrease in red blood cells or hemoglobin. Checking the hemoglobin level will confirm if the patient is anemic. Platelet count (A) assesses for clotting ability, not anemia. Neutrophil count (B) and White blood cell count (C) are indicators of infection or inflammation, not anemia. Therefore, ensuring the hemoglobin level has been ordered is crucial for assessing the patient's pallor.
Question 4 of 5
A hospitalized client has a platelet count of 58,000/mm³. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place the client on safety precautions. A platelet count of 58,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, increasing the risk of bleeding. Placing the client on safety precautions will minimize the risk of injury and bleeding. Encouraging high-protein foods (choice A) is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Neutropenic precautions (choice B) are for clients with low neutrophil counts, not low platelet counts. Limiting visitors to healthy adults (choice C) is important for infection control, not addressing the risk of bleeding.
Question 5 of 5
An 8-year-old boy undergoes a resection of a tumor in the right cerebrum next to the lateral ventricle (supratentorial). The pathologist feels the histology is most consistent with an ependymoma. The tumor is sent for advanced molecular and genetic testing. Which of the following findings would further support a diagnosis of ependymoma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: RELA fusion. Ependymomas are known to have specific genetic alterations, including RELA fusions. The fusion of RELA gene is a hallmark genetic abnormality observed in certain subtypes of ependymomas, aiding in the diagnosis. Conversely, choices A, B, and D are associated with other types of brain tumors such as pilocytic astrocytoma (A), melanoma (B), and diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma (D), respectively. These genetic alterations are not characteristic of ependymomas, making them incorrect choices in this context.