ATI RN
ATI Hematologic System Test Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a white blood cell (WBC) count of 8000/mm³. What concern should the nurse have about this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a WBC count of 8000/mm³ falls within the normal range of 4000-11000/mm³. The normal WBC count indicates the body's ability to fight infections and maintain immunity. The other choices are incorrect because: A: The patient does not necessarily have an infection based solely on the WBC count. B: The patient is not necessarily at risk for infection with a normal WBC count. C: There is no indication of a hematological disorder based on the WBC count within the normal range.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Do you take salicylates? Petechiae can be a sign of salicylate use, which can cause bleeding disorders. By asking about salicylates, the nurse can determine if the petechiae are related to medication. Choice B is not directly related to petechiae. Choice C is more specific to antiseizure drugs and not commonly associated with petechiae. Choice D is unrelated to petechiae and focuses on hypertension management. Asking about salicylates is the most appropriate to assess potential medication-induced petechiae.
Question 3 of 5
When assessing a newly admitted patient, the nurse notes pallor of the skin and nail beds. The nurse should ensure that which laboratory test has been ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hemoglobin (Hgb) level. Pallor of the skin and nail beds indicates possible anemia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of hemoglobin. Thus, checking the hemoglobin level is crucial to confirm the suspicion of anemia. Platelet count (choice A) assesses for clotting ability, neutrophil count (choice B) and white blood cell count (choice C) are indicators of infection or inflammation, which are not directly related to pallor. Hemoglobin level directly correlates with the observed symptom of pallor, making it the most appropriate laboratory test to order.
Question 4 of 5
A hospitalized client has a platelet count of 58,000/mm³. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place the client on safety precautions. A platelet count of 58,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, increasing the risk of bleeding. Safety precautions aim to prevent injury and minimize bleeding risks. Encouraging high-protein foods (choice A) is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Instituting neutropenic precautions (choice B) is for clients with low white blood cell counts, not platelet counts. Limiting visitors to healthy adults (choice C) is important for infection control, not specifically for thrombocytopenia. In summary, placing the client on safety precautions is the best action to prevent bleeding complications.
Question 5 of 5
An 8-year-old boy undergoes a resection of a tumor in the right cerebrum next to the lateral ventricle (supratentorial). The pathologist feels the histology is most consistent with an ependymoma. The tumor is sent for advanced molecular and genetic testing. Which of the following findings would further support a diagnosis of ependymoma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: RELA fusion. Ependymomas are known to have specific molecular characteristics, with RELA fusion being a common genetic alteration associated with these tumors. The fusion of RELA gene is a key genetic event in the pathogenesis of supratentorial ependymomas. This fusion leads to the activation of the NF-κB signaling pathway, which is important in the development and progression of ependymomas. Now, let's summarize why the other choices are incorrect: A: BRAFKIAA1549 fusion - This fusion is typically associated with pilocytic astrocytomas, not ependymomas. B: BRAFV600E mutation - This mutation is commonly found in other types of brain tumors like pleomorphic xanthoastrocytomas and gangliogliomas, not ependymomas. D: H3K27M mutation - This mutation is typically seen in diffuse midline gliomas, such as diffuse