ATI RN
clinical skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter in place. In caring for this patient, the nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing the catheter site for redness and/or swelling is essential in monitoring for signs of infection or complications. Redness and swelling can indicate infection, which requires prompt intervention. A: Applying a sterile gauze dressing is not necessary for a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter unless specified by the healthcare provider. B: Transparent dressings are typically left in place for several days unless there is a specific reason to change them more frequently. D: Using the catheter for drawing blood samples is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection and may interfere with the dialysis process.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following are appropriate nursing interventions for the patient in myxedema coma? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Administering levothyroxine is crucial in treating myxedema coma as it helps replace the deficient thyroid hormone. 2. This intervention addresses the underlying cause of myxedema coma, which is severe hypothyroidism. 3. Levothyroxine administration can help reverse the symptoms of myxedema coma and improve the patient's condition. Summary of Incorrect Choices: - B: Encouraging high sodium intake is not appropriate as myxedema coma is associated with fluid retention and sodium may exacerbate this. - C: Passive rewarming interventions are not relevant for myxedema coma, as the condition is not typically related to hypothermia. - D: While monitoring airway and respiratory effort is important in general patient care, it is not a specific intervention for myxedema coma.
Question 3 of 9
A 100-kg patient gets hemodialysis 3 days a week. In planning the care for this patient, the nurse recommends
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a diet of 2500 to 3500 kcal per day. During hemodialysis, patients often experience increased energy expenditure due to the treatment process. Therefore, maintaining a higher caloric intake is crucial to prevent malnutrition and support the body's needs. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as limiting protein intake to less than 50 grams per day may lead to malnutrition in a patient undergoing hemodialysis, restricting potassium intake to 10 mEq per day may not be appropriate as individual needs vary, and restricting fluid intake to less than 500 mL per day can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in a patient undergoing hemodialysis.
Question 4 of 9
What is a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (80 mL/hour) as it is considered a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg. Adequate urine output is crucial for kidney function and fluid balance. The general rule is to maintain a urine output of at least 0.5 mL/kg/hour, which in this case would be 37.5 mL/hour for a 75 kg patient. Option C (80 mL/hour) exceeds this minimum requirement, ensuring proper kidney perfusion and waste elimination. Options A (Less than 30 mL/hour) and D (150 mL/hour) are incorrect as they fall below or exceed the recommended urine output range, potentially indicating renal impairment or fluid overload, respectively. Option B (37 mL/hour) is close to the minimum requirement but does not provide a sufficient margin for variations in fluid status or kidney function.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is receiving hydrocortisone sodium succinate for adrenal crisis. What other medication does the nurse prepare to administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A proton pump inhibitor. When a patient is receiving hydrocortisone for adrenal crisis, it can lead to increased gastric acid secretion. A proton pump inhibitor helps reduce acid production and prevents gastric ulcers. Regular insulin (A) is not typically indicated in this scenario. Canagliflozin (C) is a medication used for diabetes management and is not relevant here. Propranolol (D) is a beta-blocker and may mask signs of hypoglycemia when used with insulin, which is not suitable in this case.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department with the following clinical signs: Pulse: 132 beats/min Blood pressure: 88/50 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 32 breaths/min Temperature: 8°F Chest x-ray: Findings consistent with congestive heart failure Cardiac rhythm: Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response These signs are consistent with which disorder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The clinical signs indicate a hypermetabolic state with tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea, and potential fever, typical of a thyroid storm. The presence of congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation further support this diagnosis due to the hyperthyroid state exacerbating cardiovascular symptoms. Adrenal crisis (A) would present with hypotension and shock, but not with the hypermetabolic state seen here. Myxedema coma (B) would present with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, which are not present in this case. SIADH (C) would typically present with hyponatremia and concentrated urine, which are not seen here.
Question 7 of 9
The most significant clinical finding of acute adrenal crisis associated with fluid and electrolyte imbalance is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (C: hyperkalemia): 1. Adrenal crisis leads to adrenal insufficiency, causing decreased cortisol levels. 2. Cortisol plays a crucial role in regulating potassium levels. 3. With decreased cortisol, potassium levels can rise, leading to hyperkalemia. 4. Hyperkalemia can result in life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Summary: A: Fluid volume excess is not typical in adrenal crisis. B: Hyperglycemia can be present but is not the most significant finding. D: Hypernatremia is not a typical feature of adrenal crisis.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with head trauma who was admitted to the surgical intensive care unit following a motorcycle crash. What is an important assessment that will assist the nurse in early identification of an endocrine disorder commonly associated with this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine osmolality. In head trauma patients, the risk of developing diabetes insipidus (DI) is high due to damage to the posterior pituitary. Monitoring urine osmolality helps identify DI early, as low urine osmolality indicates impaired concentration ability. This is crucial for prompt treatment to prevent dehydration. Choices A and B are important but not specific to endocrine disorders. Choice C is relevant for respiratory assessment, not endocrine disorders.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the 83-year-old long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimer's disease who recently developed influenza is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). This patient has multiple risk factors for HHS, including age, type 2 diabetes, advanced Alzheimer's disease, and the added stress of influenza, which can exacerbate hyperglycemia. The combination of these factors can lead to severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances characteristic of HHS. Choice A is incorrect because although excessive exercise can lead to hypoglycemia in individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is not a risk factor for HHS. Choice B is incorrect as forgetting to take insulin can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetes, not HHS. Choice C is incorrect as starting insulin injections in a patient with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease does not automatically increase the risk