ATI RN
Genitourinary System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient scheduled for renal should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because being NPO for 12 hours prior to a renal biopsy helps prevent complications such as aspiration during sedation. Choice B is incorrect as relaxation techniques are not typically relevant for a renal biopsy. Choice C is incorrect as conscious sedation is not routinely required for a renal biopsy. Choice D is incorrect as IV potassium chloride administration is unrelated to renal biopsy preparation and may even be contraindicated.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is describing how to perform a testicular self-examination to a patient. Which statement is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it emphasizes the importance of seeking medical advice if any abnormalities are detected during the self-examination. This statement encourages prompt action and follow-up with a healthcare provider, which is crucial for early detection and treatment of testicular cancer. Incorrect options: A: Timing of the examination is not as critical as the action to take if abnormalities are found. C: Describing the testicle's shape and texture is not the primary focus of a testicular self-examination. D: Performing the examination once a week is excessive and not recommended by medical guidelines.
Question 3 of 5
During a physical examination, the nurse finds that a male patient’s foreskin is fixed and tight and will not retract over the glans. The nurse recognizes that this condition is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin is tight and cannot be retracted over the glans. This can lead to problems with hygiene and urination. Epispadias (B) is a congenital malformation where the urethra opens on the dorsal side of the penis. Urethral stricture (C) is a narrowing of the urethra, causing difficulty with urination. Peyronie disease (D) is the development of fibrous scar tissue inside the penis, leading to curvature during erection. In this case, the fixed and tight foreskin indicates phimosis.
Question 4 of 5
Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: *
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because clavulanic acid acts as a beta-lactamase inhibitor, protecting amoxicillin from being destroyed by beta-lactamase enzymes produced by bacteria. This allows amoxicillin to effectively kill the bacteria. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clavulanic acid does not prevent renal excretion of amoxicillin, destroy bacteria directly, or counteract adverse effects of amoxicillin. The primary purpose of combining clavulanic acid with amoxicillin is to enhance amoxicillin's effectiveness by preventing its degradation by bacterial enzymes.
Question 5 of 5
A 28 year old male patient present with a painless sore in his penis and blood * test confirms Treponema pallidum. Which of the following agent is the treatment of choice that can be given as a single dose?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. The treatment of choice for syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum is penicillin. Benzathine penicillin is preferred due to its long-acting nature, providing sustained therapeutic levels. It is given as a single dose for early-stage syphilis. Ceftriaxone, vancomycin, and aztreonam are not effective against Treponema pallidum and are not recommended for the treatment of syphilis. Benzathine penicillin remains the first-line treatment due to its efficacy and established effectiveness against syphilis.