The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous ibup rofen for pain management. The nurse recognizes which laboratory assessment to be a possaibbirlbe.c soimd/ete set ffect of the ibuprofen?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine. Ibuprofen can cause kidney damage, leading to elevated creatinine levels. This is because ibuprofen is metabolized in the kidneys, and prolonged use can impair kidney function. Elevated platelet count (B), elevated white blood count (C), and low liver enzymes (D) are not typically associated with ibuprofen use. Platelet count and white blood count are more related to inflammation or infection, while low liver enzymes are not a common side effect of ibuprofen.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inability to communicate. Critically ill patients often experience pain and anxiety due to their inability to effectively communicate their needs and discomfort. This can lead to unaddressed pain and increased anxiety levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while invasive procedures, monitoring devices, and preexisting conditions can contribute to pain and anxiety in critically ill patients, they are not factors that directly predispose patients to these issues. It is the lack of communication that significantly hinders the ability to address and manage pain and anxiety effectively in these patients.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Administration of neuromuscular blocking agents can hinder pain or anxiety assessment as it paralyzes the patient, preventing them from communicating discomfort. 2. Delirium may affect the patient's ability to express pain or anxiety, but it does not directly impede assessment and management. 3. Effective nurse communication and assessment skills facilitate, rather than hamper, pain or anxiety assessment. 4. Nonverbal patients can still communicate pain or anxiety through nonverbal cues, so they do not necessarily hinder assessment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory acidosis may occur if the patient continues at these ventilator settings. Respiratory acidosis happens when the lungs cannot remove enough of the carbon dioxide (CO2) produced by the body. In this case, the low respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min may not be sufficient to adequately remove CO2, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This results in a decrease in blood pH, causing respiratory acidosis. Summary of other choices: A: Metabolic acidosis - Not the correct answer as the ventilator settings are more likely to affect the respiratory system rather than the metabolic system. B: Metabolic alkalosis - Not the correct answer as the ventilator settings are not related to causing an increase in blood pH, which is characteristic of metabolic alkalosis. D: Respiratory alkalosis - Not the correct answer as the low respiratory rate would not lead to excessive elimination of CO2, causing alkalosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure support ventilation. This mode delivers a set pressure to support each spontaneous breath, decreasing the workload of breathing. Pressure support ventilation assists the patient's inspiratory efforts without providing a set tidal volume like in volume-targeted ventilation. Continuous positive airway pressure (Choice A) maintains a constant level of positive pressure throughout the respiratory cycle but does not actively support spontaneous breathing efforts. Positive end-expiratory pressure (Choice B) maintains positive pressure at the end of expiration to prevent alveolar collapse but does not directly support spontaneous breathing. T-piece adapter (Choice D) is a weaning device that allows the patient to breathe spontaneously without ventilatory support.