ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient in the critical care unit whaobi,r ba.cfotemr/ tebset ing declared brain dead, is being managed by the OPO transplant coordinator. Thir ty minutes into the shift, assessment by the nurse includes a blood pressure 75/50 mm Hg, hear t rate 85 beats/min, and respiratory rate 12 breaths/min via assist/control ventilation. The oxygen saturation (SpO ) is 99% and 2 core temperature 93.8° F. Which primary care provider ord er should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Begin phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) for systolic BP < 90 mm Hg. The nurse should implement this order first because the patient's low blood pressure (75/50 mm Hg) indicates hypotension, which can lead to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Phenylephrine is a vasoconstrictor that can help increase the patient's blood pressure and improve perfusion. It is crucial to address hypotension promptly to prevent further complications. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining the patient's temperature above 96.8°F is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining a basic metabolic panel every 4 hours is not the immediate priority when the patient is experiencing hypotension. Choice D is incorrect as drawing arterial blood gas every 4 hours is not the most urgent intervention needed to address the patient's low blood pressure.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse educator is evaluating the performance of a new registered nurse (RN) who is providing care to a patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation with 15 cm H2O of peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). Which action indicates that the new RN is safe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The RN uses a closed-suction technique to suction the patient. This is the safe action because closed-suction technique minimizes the risk of ventilator-associated infections by maintaining a closed system during suctioning, reducing the exposure to pathogens. Closed-suction systems also help maintain lung compliance and oxygenation levels during the suctioning process. Rationale: Option A is incorrect because suctioning every 1 to 2 hours may be too frequent and can lead to hypoxia and mucosal damage. Option C is incorrect as taping the connection between the ventilator tubing and ET can interfere with the proper functioning of the ventilator and increase the risk of disconnection. Option D is incorrect because changing ventilator circuit tubing routinely every 48 hours is not evidence-based practice and can increase the risk of contamination and unnecessary costs.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is assessing a child's weight and height during a clinic visit prior to starting school. The nurse plots the child's weight on the growth chart and notes that the child's weight is in the 95th percentile for the child's height. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Question the type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day. When a child's weight is in the 95th percentile for their height, it indicates possible overweight or obesity. To address this, the nurse should assess the child's dietary habits to identify any unhealthy eating patterns contributing to excess weight. By questioning the type and quantity of foods eaten, the nurse can provide appropriate guidance on nutrition and healthy eating habits. Summary: B: Encouraging additional snacks may further contribute to weight gain and is not recommended without knowing the current eating habits. C: Recommending a high intake of whole milk may increase calorie intake and potentially worsen the weight concern. D: Assessing for signs of poor nutrition, such as a pale appearance, is important but not directly addressing the weight concern in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best initial action by the nurse is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most reliable method to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement in the trachea. This method detects exhaled CO2, indicating proper tube placement in the trachea. It is a quick and efficient way to confirm placement without delay, reducing the risk of complications. A: Auscultating for bilateral breath sounds is not as reliable because breath sounds may be heard even if the tube is misplaced. B: Obtaining a portable chest x-ray is not the best initial action as it takes time and delays confirming tube placement. C: Observing chest movement may not provide conclusive evidence of proper tube placement and can lead to misinterpretation. In summary, using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most accurate and efficient method to verify correct endotracheal tube placement compared to the other options.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse cares for an adolescent patient who is dying. The patient’s parents are interested in organ donation and ask the nurse how the decision about brain death is made. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Brain death has occurred if there is no breathing and certain reflexes are absent. Brain death is defined as the irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brainstem. The absence of breathing and certain reflexes, such as no response to painful stimuli or no pupillary response to light, are key indicators of brain death. This definition is crucial for determining eligibility for organ donation. Incorrect choices: A: Brain death occurs if a person is flaccid and unresponsive. Flaccidity and unresponsiveness are not specific criteria for diagnosing brain death. B: If CPR is ineffective in restoring a heartbeat, the brain cannot function. The absence of a heartbeat alone does not indicate brain death. D: If respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible, brain death is present. Respiratory cessation and the absence of pulse are not definitive signs of brain death.
Question 6 of 9
What term is used to describe a specific request made by a competent person that directs medical care related to life-prolonging procedures if the pa tient loses capacity to make decisions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Living will. A living will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences for medical treatment if they become unable to communicate their wishes. It specifically addresses life-prolonging procedures. Option A, Do not resuscitate order, is a specific directive to not perform CPR in case of cardiac arrest, not a comprehensive medical care directive. Option B, Healthcare proxy, is a person designated to make medical decisions on behalf of a patient who is unable to do so, not the specific directive itself. Option C, Informed consent, refers to the process of obtaining permission from a patient before conducting a healthcare intervention, not a directive for life-prolonging procedures.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient in the critical care unit whaobi,r ba.cfotemr/ tebset ing declared brain dead, is being managed by the OPO transplant coordinator. Thir ty minutes into the shift, assessment by the nurse includes a blood pressure 75/50 mm Hg, hear t rate 85 beats/min, and respiratory rate 12 breaths/min via assist/control ventilation. The oxygen saturation (SpO ) is 99% and 2 core temperature 93.8° F. Which primary care provider ord er should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Begin phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) for systolic BP < 90 mm Hg. The nurse should implement this order first because the patient's low blood pressure (75/50 mm Hg) indicates hypotension, which can lead to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Phenylephrine is a vasoconstrictor that can help increase the patient's blood pressure and improve perfusion. It is crucial to address hypotension promptly to prevent further complications. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining the patient's temperature above 96.8°F is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining a basic metabolic panel every 4 hours is not the immediate priority when the patient is experiencing hypotension. Choice D is incorrect as drawing arterial blood gas every 4 hours is not the most urgent intervention needed to address the patient's low blood pressure.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 100-kg patient being monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter. The nurse assesses a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, hear t rate 110 beats/min, respirations 36/min, oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen via nasal cannula. Bilateral crackles are audible upon auscultation. Which hemodynamic value reqaubiirrbe.sco imm/temste diate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardiac output (CO) of 4 L/min. In this scenario, the patient is presenting with signs of pulmonary congestion and hypoxemia, indicating possible cardiogenic pulmonary edema. As the cardiac output is a key indicator of how well the heart is functioning and delivering blood to the body, a low cardiac output can lead to inadequate tissue perfusion and worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, immediate action is required to address the low cardiac output to improve tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary concern of inadequate cardiac output in this patient. Cardiac index, pulmonary vascular resistance, and systemic vascular resistance are important parameters to monitor, but in this case, the priority is to address the low cardiac output to improve the patient's condition.
Question 9 of 9
A statement that provides a legally recognized descriptiona obifrb a.cno min/tedsitv idual’s desires regarding care at the end of life is referred to as what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directive. An advance directive is a legal document that outlines a person's wishes regarding medical treatment and care at the end of life. It allows individuals to specify their preferences for medical interventions if they become unable to communicate. Summary of other choices: B: Guardianship ad item - This does not specifically pertain to an individual's end-of-life care wishes. C: Healthcare proxy - While similar to an advance directive, a healthcare proxy specifically designates a person to make medical decisions on behalf of the individual, rather than specifying their own wishes. D: Power of attorney - This grants someone the authority to make legal decisions on behalf of the individual, but it does not specifically address end-of-life care preferences.