ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient in metabolic alkalosis. The patient has an NG tube to low intermittent suction for a diagnosis of bowel obstruction. What drug would the nurse expect to find on the medication orders?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cimetidine. In metabolic alkalosis, the blood pH is elevated due to excess bicarbonate. Cimetidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist that can help decrease gastric acid production, which can contribute to alkalosis. Maalox (B) is an antacid used to treat acid-related conditions, not alkalosis. Potassium chloride elixir (C) is used to correct potassium imbalances, not directly related to alkalosis. Furosemide (D) is a loop diuretic used to treat fluid retention and edema, not specifically indicated for metabolic alkalosis.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an epidural infusion for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention from the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report of headache and stiff neck. This finding indicates a potential complication of epidural anesthesia called a post-dural puncture headache, which can lead to serious consequences like meningitis or subdural hematoma. The nurse should act immediately by notifying the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Redness at the catheter insertion site (A) may indicate local inflammation but doesn't require immediate intervention. Temperature elevation (C) could be a sign of infection but isn't as urgent as a headache and stiff neck. Pain rating of 8 (D) is important but doesn't indicate an immediate threat to the client's health like a post-dural puncture headache.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL. Which provider order should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage oral fluid intake. When a client has hypercalcemia (serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL), the priority is to increase fluid intake to promote renal calcium excretion. This helps prevent complications such as renal calculi. The first step is to dilute the serum calcium by increasing fluid intake, which can help lower the serum calcium level. Connecting the client to a cardiac monitor (B) is not the priority as hypercalcemia affects the kidneys more than the heart. Assessing urinary output (C) is important but encouraging fluid intake is more immediate. Administering oral calcitonin (Calcimar) (D) is not the first action as it is a medication used for long-term management of hypercalcemia, not the immediate priority.
Question 4 of 9
. One day after a patient is admitted to the medical unit, you note that the patient is oliguric. You notify the acutecare nurse practitioner who orders a fluid challenge of 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. This intervention will achieve which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Help distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function. Rationale: 1. Oliguria is a decrease in urine output. 2. Fluid challenge with normal saline can help determine the cause of oliguria by assessing the response of the kidneys. 3. If the oliguria improves after the fluid challenge, it suggests reduced renal blood flow as the cause. 4. If oliguria persists, it indicates decreased renal function. Summary: A. Fluid challenge does not directly help in distinguishing between hyponatremia and hypernatremia. B. Evaluating pituitary gland function requires specific tests, not just a fluid challenge. D. Treating hypertension-induced oliguria may involve different interventions, not just a fluid challenge.
Question 5 of 9
You are caring for a patient with a secondary diagnosis of hypermagnesemia. What assessment finding would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shallow respirations. Hypermagnesemia can lead to respiratory depression due to its inhibitory effect on the central nervous system. Shallow respirations are a common respiratory manifestation of hypermagnesemia. Hypertension (choice A) is not typically associated with hypermagnesemia. Kussmaul respirations (choice B) are deep, rapid breathing patterns seen in metabolic acidosis, not hypermagnesemia. Increased deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) (choice C) are more indicative of hypomagnesemia, as magnesium deficiency can lead to hyperexcitability of nerves and muscles, resulting in increased DTRs.
Question 6 of 9
You are the nurse evaluating a newly admitted patients laboratory results, which include several values that are outside of reference ranges. Which of the following would cause the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased serum sodium. High serum sodium levels trigger the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland to help retain water in the body and maintain fluid balance. This is a physiological response to prevent further dehydration. Decreased serum potassium (choice B), decreased hemoglobin (choice C), and increased platelets (choice D) do not directly stimulate the release of ADH. Hence, they are incorrect choices in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
. You are caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Your patients plan of care includes assessment of specific gravity every 4 hours. The results of this test will allow the nurse to as
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fluid volume status. Assessment of specific gravity helps to determine the concentration of solutes in the urine, indicating the degree of hydration or dehydration. In SIADH, there is water retention leading to diluted urine, resulting in low specific gravity. Monitoring specific gravity every 4 hours is crucial in assessing the patient's fluid volume status and response to treatment. A: Nutritional status is not directly assessed by specific gravity. B: Potassium balance is not directly assessed by specific gravity. C: Calcium balance is not directly assessed by specific gravity.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is assessing the patient for the presence of a Chvosteks sign. What electrolyte imbalance would a positive Chvosteks sign indicate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Chvostek's sign is a facial muscle spasm induced by tapping the facial nerve in hypocalcemia. Step 2: Hypocalcemia causes increased neuromuscular excitability, leading to Chvostek's sign. Step 3: Hyperkalemia (choice D) causes muscle weakness, not muscle spasm. Step 4: Hyponatremia (choice B) affects osmolarity, not neuromuscular excitability. Step 5: Hypermagnesemia (choice A) causes muscle weakness, not muscle spasm.
Question 9 of 9
After providing discharge teaching, a nurse assesses the clients understanding regarding increased risk for metabolic alkalosis. Which statement indicates the client needs additional teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because taking sodium bicarbonate after every meal can actually increase the risk of metabolic alkalosis due to its alkaline nature. Sodium bicarbonate can lead to an excessive build-up of bicarbonate in the bloodstream, causing alkalosis. Choice A is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis. Choice B, taking digoxin, is unrelated to metabolic alkalosis as well. Choice D, drinking six glasses of water due to sweating, does not contribute to metabolic alkalosis as it helps maintain hydration and electrolyte balance.