The nurse is caring for a patient following insertion of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC). Which action by the nurse best reduces th e risk of catheter-related bloodstream infection (CRBSI)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Review daily the necessity of the central venous catheter. This action reduces the risk of CRBSI by promoting early removal of unnecessary catheters, which is a key strategy in preventing infections. Unnecessary catheters increase the risk of infection due to prolonged exposure to the patient's skin flora and possible contamination during insertion. Reviewing daily ensures the catheter is only kept when necessary, minimizing the duration of catheter use and reducing the chances of infection. Summary of other choices: B: Cleansing the insertion site daily with isopropyl alcohol is important for maintaining skin integrity but does not directly reduce the risk of CRBSI. C: Changing the pressurized tubing system and flush bag daily is important for maintaining catheter patency but does not directly reduce the risk of CRBSI. D: Maintaining a pressure of 300 mm Hg on the flush bag is important for proper catheter function but does not directly reduce the risk of CR

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory acidosis may occur if the patient continues at these ventilator settings. Respiratory acidosis happens when the lungs cannot remove enough of the carbon dioxide (CO2) produced by the body. In this case, the low respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min may not be sufficient to adequately remove CO2, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This results in a decrease in blood pH, causing respiratory acidosis. Summary of other choices: A: Metabolic acidosis - Not the correct answer as the ventilator settings are more likely to affect the respiratory system rather than the metabolic system. B: Metabolic alkalosis - Not the correct answer as the ventilator settings are not related to causing an increase in blood pH, which is characteristic of metabolic alkalosis. D: Respiratory alkalosis - Not the correct answer as the low respiratory rate would not lead to excessive elimination of CO2, causing alkalosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Change to assist/control ventilation at a rate of 4 breaths/min. When the patient's spontaneous respirations decrease to match the ventilator rate, it indicates that the patient is not actively participating in breathing. Changing to assist/control ventilation allows the patient to trigger breaths when they desire, ensuring a more synchronized and comfortable breathing pattern. A: Adding PEEP may help improve oxygenation but is not directly related to the issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. B: Adding pressure support provides additional support during inspiration but does not address the underlying issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. D: Increasing the SIMV respiratory rate would not address the patient's decreased spontaneous respirations and could potentially lead to overventilation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directive. An advance directive is a legal document that outlines a person's wishes regarding medical treatment and care at the end of life. It allows individuals to specify their preferences for medical interventions if they become unable to communicate. Summary of other choices: B: Guardianship ad item - This does not specifically pertain to an individual's end-of-life care wishes. C: Healthcare proxy - While similar to an advance directive, a healthcare proxy specifically designates a person to make medical decisions on behalf of the individual, rather than specifying their own wishes. D: Power of attorney - This grants someone the authority to make legal decisions on behalf of the individual, but it does not specifically address end-of-life care preferences.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inability to communicate. Critically ill patients often experience pain and anxiety due to their inability to effectively communicate their needs and discomfort. This can lead to unaddressed pain and increased anxiety levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while invasive procedures, monitoring devices, and preexisting conditions can contribute to pain and anxiety in critically ill patients, they are not factors that directly predispose patients to these issues. It is the lack of communication that significantly hinders the ability to address and manage pain and anxiety effectively in these patients.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neuromuscular blockade. 1. Neuromuscular blockade helps to achieve optimal ventilator synchrony by reducing patient-ventilator asynchrony and improving oxygenation in patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). 2. Despite sedation, the patient's restlessness and discomfort suggest inadequate ventilator synchrony, which can be addressed by neuromuscular blockade. 3. Continuous lateral rotation therapy (A) and prone positioning (D) are interventions for improving ventilation and oxygenation in ARDS but do not directly address patient-ventilator synchrony. 4. Guided imagery (B) is a non-pharmacological technique for relaxation and pain management, which may not address the underlying issue of ventilator synchrony in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Change in sputum characteristics. This is a cue for postoperative pneumonia in a COPD patient because it can indicate an infection in the lungs. Postoperative pneumonia is a common complication in patients with COPD due to impaired lung function and weakened immune system. Other choices are incorrect: A) Bradycardia is not a specific indicator of postoperative pneumonia. C) Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis can be seen in patients with COPD but are not specific to postoperative pneumonia. D) Pursed-lip breathing is a coping mechanism for patients with COPD and is not directly related to postoperative pneumonia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Question the type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day. When a child's weight is in the 95th percentile for their height, it indicates possible overweight or obesity. To address this, the nurse should assess the child's dietary habits to identify any unhealthy eating patterns contributing to excess weight. By questioning the type and quantity of foods eaten, the nurse can provide appropriate guidance on nutrition and healthy eating habits. Summary: B: Encouraging additional snacks may further contribute to weight gain and is not recommended without knowing the current eating habits. C: Recommending a high intake of whole milk may increase calorie intake and potentially worsen the weight concern. D: Assessing for signs of poor nutrition, such as a pale appearance, is important but not directly addressing the weight concern in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because renin activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade, which ultimately leads to vasoconstriction, increased blood pressure, and aldosterone release to increase sodium and water reabsorption. Renin does not suppress angiotensin production (B), decrease sodium reabsorption (C), or inhibit aldosterone release (D), as these actions would counteract its role in blood pressure regulation.