ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient following insertion of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC). Which action by the nurse best reduces th e risk of catheter-related bloodstream infection (CRBSI)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Review daily the necessity of the central venous catheter. This action reduces the risk of CRBSI by promoting early removal of unnecessary catheters, which is a key strategy in preventing infections. Unnecessary catheters increase the risk of infection due to prolonged exposure to the patient's skin flora and possible contamination during insertion. Reviewing daily ensures the catheter is only kept when necessary, minimizing the duration of catheter use and reducing the chances of infection. Summary of other choices: B: Cleansing the insertion site daily with isopropyl alcohol is important for maintaining skin integrity but does not directly reduce the risk of CRBSI. C: Changing the pressurized tubing system and flush bag daily is important for maintaining catheter patency but does not directly reduce the risk of CRBSI. D: Maintaining a pressure of 300 mm Hg on the flush bag is important for proper catheter function but does not directly reduce the risk of CR
Question 2 of 9
The charge nurse is responsible for making the patient ass ignments on the critical care unit. She assigns the experienced, certified nurse to care for thea abicrbu.cteomly/t eisltl patient diagnosed with sepsis who also requires continuous renal replacement therapy and mechanical ventilation. She assigns the nurse with less than 1 year of experience to two patients who are more stable. This assignment reflects implementation of what guiding framework?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Synergy model of practice. The Synergy model emphasizes matching nurse competencies with patient needs for optimal outcomes. In this scenario, the charge nurse assigned the experienced, certified nurse to a complex patient requiring specialized care (sepsis, renal replacement therapy, ventilation), aligning with the model's principle of matching nurse expertise to patient acuity. Assigning the less experienced nurse to stable patients aligns with the model's focus on optimizing patient outcomes by matching nurse competencies appropriately. A: Crew resource management model focuses on teamwork and communication to enhance safety, not specifically on nurse-patient assignments. B: National Patient Safety Goals are broad guidelines for improving patient safety, not specific to nurse-patient assignments. C: Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) model focuses on integrating quality and safety competencies into nursing education, not specifically on nurse-patient assignments.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following factors predispose the critically ill patient to pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inability to communicate. Critically ill patients often experience pain and anxiety due to their inability to effectively communicate their needs and discomfort. This can lead to unaddressed pain and increased anxiety levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while invasive procedures, monitoring devices, and preexisting conditions can contribute to pain and anxiety in critically ill patients, they are not factors that directly predispose patients to these issues. It is the lack of communication that significantly hinders the ability to address and manage pain and anxiety effectively in these patients.
Question 4 of 9
Which interventions may be included during “terminal we aning”? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because during terminal weaning, the artificial ventilation is discontinued while maintaining the artificial airway to ensure comfort and support. This allows the patient to breathe on their own with support as needed. Explanation: 1. Option A: Complete extubation following ventilator withdrawal may not be suitable during terminal weaning as it involves removing the breathing tube entirely. 2. Option C: Discontinuation of anxiolytic and pain medications may not always be appropriate during terminal weaning as it depends on the patient's comfort needs. 3. Option D: Titration of ventilator support based on blood gas determinations is not typically done during terminal weaning as the focus is on gradual withdrawal of ventilation support while maintaining comfort.
Question 5 of 9
A 28-year-old patient who has deep human bite wounds on the left hand is being treated in the urgent care center. Which action will the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teach the patient the reason for the use of prophylactic antibiotics. This is the most important action because human bites can introduce harmful bacteria into the wound, leading to infection. Prophylactic antibiotics help prevent infection in deep human bite wounds. Choice A is incorrect because rabies immune globulin is not indicated for human bite wounds. Choice B is incorrect because suturing human bite wounds can trap bacteria and increase the risk of infection. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the wounds dry is not sufficient; proper wound cleaning and antibiotic treatment are essential in this case.
Question 6 of 9
Conditions that produce acute kidney injury by directly acting on functioning kidney tissue are classified as intrarenal. The most common intrarenal condition is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the most common intrarenal condition as it directly affects kidney tubules. 2. ATN is characterized by damage to renal tubular cells due to various factors like toxins or ischemia. 3. Prolonged ischemia (choice A) can lead to ATN but is not the most common intrarenal condition. 4. Exposure to nephrotoxic substances (choice B) can cause ATN, but ATN itself is more common. 5. Hypotension for several hours (choice D) can result in ischemia and subsequent ATN, but ATN is still the primary intrarenal condition.
Question 7 of 9
The patient’s significant other is terrified by the prospect o f removing life-sustaining treatments from the patient and asks why anyone would do that. What explanation should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it explains that the decision to remove life-sustaining treatments is based on the fact that these treatments are not helping the patient and may actually be causing discomfort. This rationale aligns with the principle of beneficence, which emphasizes doing good and avoiding harm to the patient. It also respects the patient's autonomy by prioritizing their well-being and quality of life. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on financial reasons rather than the patient's best interest. Choice B is incorrect because it prioritizes hospital resources over individual patient care. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity and may come across as insensitive to the significant other's concerns.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse understands that many strategies are available to address ethical issues that may occur; these strategies include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ethics consultation services. These services involve seeking guidance from experts to navigate complex ethical dilemmas. They provide in-depth analysis and recommendations based on ethical principles, helping healthcare professionals make informed decisions. Change-of-shift report updates (A) are essential for continuity of care but do not directly address ethical issues. Formal multiprofessional ethics committees (C) are valuable for reviewing policies and addressing systemic ethical concerns but may not be readily available for immediate guidance. Pastoral care services (D) offer spiritual support but may not always have the expertise to handle complex ethical dilemmas. Ethics consultation services (B) are the most suitable option for addressing specific ethical issues promptly and effectively.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 100-kg patient being monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter. The nurse assesses a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, hear t rate 110 beats/min, respirations 36/min, oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen via nasal cannula. Bilateral crackles are audible upon auscultation. Which hemodynamic value reqaubiirrbe.sco imm/temste diate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardiac output (CO) of 4 L/min. In this scenario, the patient is presenting with signs of pulmonary congestion and hypoxemia, indicating possible cardiogenic pulmonary edema. As the cardiac output is a key indicator of how well the heart is functioning and delivering blood to the body, a low cardiac output can lead to inadequate tissue perfusion and worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, immediate action is required to address the low cardiac output to improve tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary concern of inadequate cardiac output in this patient. Cardiac index, pulmonary vascular resistance, and systemic vascular resistance are important parameters to monitor, but in this case, the priority is to address the low cardiac output to improve the patient's condition.