ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with Parkinsons disease. The patient is having increasing problems with rising from the sitting to the standing position. What should the nurse suggest to the patient to use that will aid in getting from the sitting to the standing position as well as aid in improving bowel elimination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Use of a raised toilet seat Rationale: A raised toilet seat helps the patient with Parkinson's disease by providing additional height, making it easier for them to transition from sitting to standing. This aids in improving mobility and reducing the risk of falls. Furthermore, the raised seat can also promote proper positioning for bowel elimination, making the process more comfortable and effective. Incorrect Choices: A: Using a bedpan does not address the issue of transitioning from sitting to standing, nor does it aid in improving bowel elimination for the patient. C: Sitting quietly on the toilet every 2 hours may not directly address the physical challenges the patient is facing in transitioning from sitting to standing. D: Following the outlined bowel program is important, but it does not specifically address the physical support needed to transition from sitting to standing for a patient with Parkinson's disease.
Question 2 of 9
The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on that signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patients risk of hypercalcemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C is correct because adequate hydration helps prevent hypercalcemia by promoting the excretion of excess calcium in the urine. This reduces the risk of calcium buildup in the blood. Consuming 2 to 4 liters of fluid daily ensures proper hydration, which is crucial for patients at risk for hypercalcemia. Stool softeners (Option A) are not contraindicated and can help prevent constipation, which may be a side effect of some cancer treatments. Laxatives (Option B) should not be taken daily as they can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Restricting calcium intake (Option D) is not the primary intervention for preventing hypercalcemia; rather, maintaining adequate hydration is key.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is working at a health fair screening people for liver cancer. Which population group should the nurse monitor mostclosely for liver cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asian Americans. Asian Americans have a higher incidence of liver cancer compared to other population groups due to factors such as chronic hepatitis B infection and dietary aflatoxin exposure. Monitoring this group closely is essential for early detection and intervention. Incorrect choices: A: Hispanic - While Hispanics have a higher prevalence of fatty liver disease, the highest risk of liver cancer is not among this group. C: Non-Hispanic Caucasians - Caucasians have a lower incidence of liver cancer compared to Asian Americans. D: Non-Hispanic African-Americans - African-Americans have a lower risk of liver cancer compared to Asian Americans due to differences in risk factors and prevalence of hepatitis B.
Question 4 of 9
A patient diagnosed with arthritis has been taking aspirin and now reports experiencing tinnitus and hearing loss. What should the nurse teach this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hearing loss and tinnitus caused by aspirin are typically irreversible. Aspirin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can lead to permanent damage to the auditory system. The nurse should inform the patient that the hearing loss and tinnitus may not improve even after discontinuing aspirin. Choice A is incorrect because hearing loss caused by aspirin is usually permanent. Choice C is incorrect because aspirin is a known cause of tinnitus and hearing loss. Choice D is incorrect because tolerance to aspirin does not prevent or reverse ototoxic effects like tinnitus and hearing loss.
Question 5 of 9
A woman is being treated for a tumor of the left breast. If the patient and her physician opt for prophylactic treatment, the nurse should prepare the woman for what intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bilateral mastectomy. This intervention involves removing both breasts to reduce the risk of developing breast cancer in the future. For a woman with a history of breast cancer in one breast, opting for bilateral mastectomy can significantly decrease the likelihood of cancer recurrence. This proactive approach is often recommended for individuals with a high risk of developing breast cancer. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: More aggressive chemotherapy - Chemotherapy is typically used to treat existing cancer cells, not as a prophylactic measure to prevent cancer. B: Left mastectomy - This option only removes the affected breast, not addressing the risk of cancer developing in the other breast. C: Radiation therapy - While radiation therapy can be used as part of the treatment for breast cancer, it is not a prophylactic measure to prevent future cancer development in the contralateral breast.
Question 6 of 9
A patient who has AIDS has been admitted for the treatment of Kaposis sarcoma. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse associate with this complication of AIDS?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Kaposis Sarcoma. Kaposis sarcoma can cause skin lesions that may lead to impaired skin integrity due to tissue breakdown. The nurse should prioritize interventions to prevent infection and promote wound healing. Choice A is incorrect because Disuse Syndrome is not directly related to Kaposis Sarcoma. Choice C, Diarrhea, is not a common complication of Kaposis Sarcoma. Choice D, Impaired Swallowing, is not typically associated with Kaposis Sarcoma.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse should recognize the greatest risk for the development of blindness in which of the following patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because macular degeneration is a leading cause of blindness in older adults. The macula is responsible for central vision, crucial for tasks like reading and driving. Macular degeneration can lead to permanent vision loss if not managed promptly. The other choices are less likely to result in blindness: astigmatism, hyperopia, and myopia are refractive errors that can be corrected with glasses or contacts, and they do not typically lead to blindness. The age and condition of the patient are important factors in determining the risk of blindness.
Question 8 of 9
A patient has just arrived to the floor after an enucleation procedure following a workplace accident in which his left eye was irreparably damaged. Which of the following should the nurse prioritize during the patients immediate postoperative recovery?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessing and addressing the patient's emotional needs. This should be prioritized because the patient has undergone a traumatic experience losing their eye due to a workplace accident. Emotions such as fear, anxiety, and grief are common postoperatively. Addressing these emotional needs is crucial for the patient's overall well-being and recovery. Options A, B, and D are important aspects of care but not the priority in this situation. Teaching about eye prostheses, depth perception, and medication regimen can be addressed once the patient's emotional needs are stabilized.
Question 9 of 9
To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Finasteride is a medication that works by decreasing glandular cellular activity and reducing prostate size. Step 2: Dietary supplements can interact with finasteride, potentially affecting its effectiveness or causing adverse effects. Step 3: Reporting the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician ensures proper monitoring and adjustment of the treatment plan. Step 4: This communication promotes patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes. Therefore, choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of informing the physician about dietary supplement use to ensure the efficacy and safety of finasteride. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the mechanism of action or specific considerations of finasteride therapy.