ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient. T he primary care providers are considering performing a tracheostomy because the patienatb iirsb .hcoamv/itensgt difficulty weaning from mechanical ventilation. Related to tracheostomy, the nurse understands which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Procedures performed in the operating room are associated with fewer complications. This is because performing a tracheostomy in the operating room allows for better control of the environment, equipment, and expertise of the surgical team. In this setting, the risk of complications such as bleeding, infection, and injury to surrounding structures is minimized. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: Patient outcomes are better if the tracheostomy is done within a week of intubation - This statement is not universally true and depends on individual patient factors. Timing of tracheostomy should be based on the patient's clinical condition and not a set timeline. B: Percutaneous tracheostomy can be done safely at the bedside by the respiratory therapist - While percutaneous tracheostomy can be performed at the bedside, it is typically done by a trained physician or surgeon due to the potential risks and complications involved. D: The greatest risk after a per
Question 2 of 5
In assessing a patient, the nurse understands that what sym ptomology is an early sign of hypoxemia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Restlessness is an early sign of hypoxemia due to the body's response to low oxygen levels. Step 2: Restlessness occurs as the body tries to increase oxygen intake. Step 3: Other choices are incorrect because clubbing and cyanosis are late signs, while hypotension is not a specific early sign of hypoxemia.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is discharging a patient home following treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. As part of the discharge teaching, the nurse sh ould provide instruction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Influenza can lead to pneumonia as a complication, so getting an annual flu shot can reduce the risk of pneumonia. Step 2: Providing education on the importance of prevention aligns with discharge teaching goals. Step 3: Option A is incorrect as the pneumococcal vaccine doesn't guarantee immunity from all causes of pneumonia. Step 4: Option C is incorrect as cold or drafty places do not directly cause pneumonia. Step 5: Option D is incorrect as having pneumonia once does not confer permanent immunity.
Question 4 of 5
A patient at high risk for pulmonary embolism is receiving enoxaparin. The nurse should provide the patient with what explanation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: “This injection is being given to prevent blood clots from forming.” Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots. It is administered through injection, not orally (A). Enoxaparin does not dissolve existing blood clots (C). Contacting the primary care provider to discuss the medication is not necessary in this scenario (D). The correct choice emphasizes the purpose of enoxaparin in preventing new blood clots.
Question 5 of 5
What are the diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray study. ARDS diagnosis requires bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, indicative of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Choice B, decreased cardiac output, is not a diagnostic criterion for ARDS. Choice C, PaO2/FiO2 ratio of less than 200, is a key diagnostic criteria for ARDS, indicating severe hypoxemia. Choice D, PAOP of more than 18 mm Hg, is used to differentiate between cardiogenic and non-cardiogenic causes of pulmonary edema, but it is not a direct diagnostic criterion for ARDS.