ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient an d responds to a high inspiratory pressure alarm. Recognizing possible causes for the alarma, btihrbe.c nomu/rtesset assesses for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disconnection from the ventilator. This is the correct choice because a high inspiratory pressure alarm can indicate a disconnection, leading to inadequate ventilation and increased pressure in the circuit. This can be a life-threatening situation that requires immediate attention. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Coughing or attempting to talk - While coughing or talking may affect the patient's ability to ventilate properly, it is not directly related to the high inspiratory pressure alarm. C: Kinks in the ventilator tubing - Kinks in the tubing may cause increased resistance to airflow, but they are more likely to trigger a low pressure alarm rather than a high inspiratory pressure alarm. D: Need for suctioning - Suctioning may be necessary for airway clearance, but it is not directly related to the high inspiratory pressure alarm.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory dist ress syndrome who is hypoxemic despite mechanical ventilation. The primary care provider (PCP) orders a nontraditional ventilator mode as part of treatment. Despite sedation and aabnirba.lcgoems/tieas,t the patient remains restless and appears to be in discomfort. The nurse informs the PCP of this assessment and anticipates what order?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neuromuscular blockade. 1. Neuromuscular blockade helps to achieve optimal ventilator synchrony by reducing patient-ventilator asynchrony and improving oxygenation in patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). 2. Despite sedation, the patient's restlessness and discomfort suggest inadequate ventilator synchrony, which can be addressed by neuromuscular blockade. 3. Continuous lateral rotation therapy (A) and prone positioning (D) are interventions for improving ventilation and oxygenation in ARDS but do not directly address patient-ventilator synchrony. 4. Guided imagery (B) is a non-pharmacological technique for relaxation and pain management, which may not address the underlying issue of ventilator synchrony in this case.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with chroni c obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment would be a cue to the patient developing postoperative pneumonia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Change in sputum characteristics. This is a cue for postoperative pneumonia in a COPD patient because it can indicate an infection in the lungs. Postoperative pneumonia is a common complication in patients with COPD due to impaired lung function and weakened immune system. Other choices are incorrect: A) Bradycardia is not a specific indicator of postoperative pneumonia. C) Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis can be seen in patients with COPD but are not specific to postoperative pneumonia. D) Pursed-lip breathing is a coping mechanism for patients with COPD and is not directly related to postoperative pneumonia.
Question 4 of 5
What is a strategy for preventing thromboembolism in pat ients at risk who cannot take anticoagulants?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insertion of a vena cava filter. This is a strategy for preventing thromboembolism in patients at risk who cannot take anticoagulants. The vena cava filter prevents blood clots from traveling to the lungs by trapping them in the inferior vena cava. It is a mechanical device that does not interfere with the body's clotting process. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Administration of two aspirin tablets every 4 hours is not an effective strategy for preventing thromboembolism in high-risk patients. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent and may not be sufficient for preventing blood clots in these patients. B: Infusion of thrombolytics is used for breaking down blood clots that have already formed, not for prevention. It is not a suitable option for preventing thromboembolism in at-risk patients. D: Subcutaneous heparin administration every 12
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following are physiological effects of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) used in the treatment of acute respiratory distress syndrom e (ARDS)? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase functional residual capacity. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) helps increase the functional residual capacity by keeping the alveoli open at the end of expiration. This prevents alveolar collapse, improves ventilation-perfusion matching, and enhances oxygenation. B: Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP actually helps prevent the collapse of all alveoli, not just unstable ones. C: Improve arterial oxygenation - This is partially correct, but the primary mechanism through which PEEP improves oxygenation is by increasing functional residual capacity. D: Open collapsed alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP helps prevent alveolar collapse rather than actively opening already collapsed alveoli.