ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a critically ill patient who can speak. The nurse notices that the patient is demonstrating behaviors indicative of anxiety but is silent. What nursing strategy would give the nurse the most information about the patients feelings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because asking the patient to share his or her internal dialogue can provide direct insight into the patient's thoughts and feelings, allowing the nurse to address specific anxieties. This approach promotes open communication and understanding. Choice A focuses on providing information but may not directly address the patient's feelings. Choice C is unrelated to addressing the patient's anxiety. Choice D addresses pain control, which is important but not directly related to exploring the patient's emotions. Therefore, option B is the most effective strategy for gaining insight into the patient's feelings in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is preparing to obtain a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) reading for a patient who is mechanically ventilated. Ensuring that the aaibri-rbf.lcuoimd/ teinstt erface is at the level of the phlebostatic axis, what is the best nursing action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because placing the patient with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees is the best position for obtaining an accurate PAOP reading. Elevating the head of the bed helps to align the phlebostatic axis with the atrium, ensuring an accurate measurement of PAOP. This position reduces the impact of hydrostatic pressure on the reading. Options A and D are incorrect because the supine position and recording during exhalation or just before the increase in pressures during inhalation can lead to inaccurate readings. Option B is incorrect because documenting the average PAOP after three measurements does not address the importance of positioning for accuracy.
Question 3 of 9
Following an earthquake, patients are triaged by emergency medical personnel and are transported to the emergency department (ED). Which patient will the nurse need to assess first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A patient with a red tag. In triage, red tags indicate patients with life-threatening injuries who require immediate attention. The nurse must assess this patient first to provide necessary interventions. Patients with blue tags are considered urgent but stable, black tags are deceased or beyond help, and yellow tags are for delayed treatment. Assessing the red-tagged patient first ensures prompt care for those in critical condition.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who is unable to void. The plan of care establishes an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document that indicates a successful outcome?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The objective is for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Step 2: Choice C states that the client drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift, totaling 1200 mL (240 mL x 5) which exceeds the required amount. Step 3: Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it demonstrates successful achievement of the objective by ensuring the client has ingested enough fluid within the specified time frame. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the specific objective of fluid intake set for the client. Option A focuses on intake and output, option B relates to abdominal comfort, and option D is about voiding, none of which directly address the specified objective of fluid ingestion.
Question 5 of 9
Which statement is true regarding the effects of caring for dying patients on nurses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer, D, is supported by the fact that providing aggressive care to patients when nurses believe it is futile can lead to personal ethical conflicts and burnout. This is because nurses may experience moral distress when their values conflict with the care they are providing. This can result in emotional exhaustion and decreased job satisfaction, ultimately leading to burnout. Choice A is incorrect because attending funerals can be a way for nurses to process their grief and find closure, rather than creating additional stress. Choice B is incorrect because caring for dying patients can have emotional impacts on nurses, regardless of their professional approach. Choice C is incorrect because balancing care needs with personal emotional needs can be challenging and may not always be achievable.
Question 6 of 9
Which strategy is important to addressing issues associated with the aging workforce? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Allowing nurses to work flexible shift durations. This strategy is important in addressing issues associated with the aging workforce because it acknowledges the changing needs and preferences of older nurses. By offering flexible shift durations, older nurses can better manage their work-life balance, reduce physical strain, and continue contributing to the workforce effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the specific needs of the aging workforce. Encouraging older nurses to transfer to a less stressful outpatient setting may not align with their career goals. Hiring nurse technicians to assist with patient care may not address the unique experience and expertise of older nurses. Developing a staffing model, while important, does not specifically cater to the needs of aging nurses in terms of flexibility and support.
Question 7 of 9
What is true regarding pain and anxiety in the healthy individual? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because pain and anxiety trigger the sympathetic nervous system's fight-or-flight response, increasing heart rate, blood pressure, and stress hormones to prepare the body for potential danger. This physiological response helps the individual respond to perceived threats. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because pain and anxiety typically increase stress levels, do not necessarily remove one from harm, and can hinder rather than enhance performance due to distraction and decreased focus.
Question 8 of 9
After the change-of-shift report, which patient should the progressive care nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The patient receiving IV heparin with a PTT of 98 seconds is at risk for bleeding due to the therapeutic range of 60-80 seconds. Assessing this patient first is crucial to prevent potential bleeding complications. A high PTT indicates the blood is not clotting properly, increasing the risk of bleeding. Prompt assessment and possible adjustment of heparin infusion are needed. A: The patient with a temperature of 101.4°F may have a fever but is not at immediate risk compared to the patient with a high PTT. B: The patient on BiPAP with a respiratory rate of 16 is stable and does not require immediate assessment. C: The patient post-percutaneous coronary intervention needing to void is a routine need and does not require immediate attention compared to the patient with a critical lab value.
Question 9 of 9
Ideally, by whom and when should an advance directive be developed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C: 1. Advance directives should be made by the patient to reflect their wishes. 2. Developing it before illness ensures clarity and avoids confusion. 3. Patients may not be able to make informed decisions in critical conditions. 4. Family or surrogates may not accurately represent the patient's wishes. Summary: A - Family in critical condition may not know the patient's wishes. B - Hospital admission process may be too late for clear decision-making. D - Healthcare surrogate may not fully understand the patient's preferences.