ATI RN
Oxygenation NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). What position is most effective in improving oxygenation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prone position. Placing the client in the prone position improves oxygenation in ARDS by enhancing ventilation-perfusion matching, reducing lung compression, and increasing alveolar recruitment. This position helps to improve oxygenation by allowing for more uniform distribution of ventilation throughout the lungs. The other choices (A: Supine position, C: High Fowler's position, D: Side-lying position) do not provide the same benefits for oxygenation in ARDS. Supine position may worsen oxygenation due to increased pressure on the diaphragm, High Fowler's position may not optimize lung expansion, and Side-lying position may not effectively improve ventilation/perfusion matching.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with emphysema. Which physical assessment finding is most characteristic of this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Barrel-shaped chest. Emphysema is characterized by hyperinflation of the lungs, leading to a barrel-shaped chest due to increased lung volume. This results from air trapping and loss of lung elasticity. Dullness to percussion (B) is associated with pleural effusion or consolidation, not emphysema. Increased fremitus (C) is seen in conditions with increased lung density, not in emphysema. Inspiratory crackles (D) are indicative of conditions such as pneumonia or heart failure, not emphysema.
Question 3 of 5
A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics. Which action is most important to ensure effective treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Collecting a sputum culture before administering antibiotics is crucial to identify the specific pathogen causing the pneumonia. This allows for targeted antibiotic therapy, improving treatment effectiveness. Encouraging oral fluid intake (A) is important but not as critical as identifying the pathogen. Administering antipyretics (C) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying infection. Monitoring white blood cell count (D) is general and may not provide specific information needed for effective treatment.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse analyzes the results of a patient's arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which finding would require immediate action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A PaO2 level of 59 mm Hg indicates severe hypoxemia, which requires immediate action to ensure adequate oxygen delivery to tissues. Normal PaO2 levels are typically above 80 mm Hg. Low PaO2 can lead to tissue hypoxia and is a critical finding that needs prompt intervention. Choice A (HCO3– of 31 mEq/L) is slightly elevated but does not require immediate action. Choice B (SaO2 of 92%) is within the normal range and does not indicate an urgent issue. Choice C (PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg) is also within the normal range and does not necessitate immediate intervention. In summary, the correct answer is D because a low PaO2 level signifies severe hypoxemia, requiring prompt attention to prevent potential complications.
Question 5 of 5
A patient arrives in the emergency department with a stab wound to the chest. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because taping a nonporous dressing on three sides over the wound creates a flutter valve effect, allowing air to escape but not re-enter, preventing tension pneumothorax. Choice A (keeping the head of the bed flat) may worsen respiratory distress. Choice B (covering the wound tightly with an occlusive dressing) can lead to tension pneumothorax. Choice C (positioning the patient with the left chest dependent) is incorrect and may not address the immediate issue of air escaping from the wound.