The nurse is caring for a client with a dignosis of aortic stenosis. The client reports episodes of angina and passing out recently at home. The client has surgery scheduled in 2 weeks. Which of the following would be the nurse's best explanation about activity at this time?

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Question 1 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with a dignosis of aortic stenosis. The client reports episodes of angina and passing out recently at home. The client has surgery scheduled in 2 weeks. Which of the following would be the nurse's best explanation about activity at this time?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because strenuous activities can worsen aortic stenosis symptoms like angina and syncope. Stairs and lifting can increase the workload on the heart, which is already compromised in aortic stenosis. By avoiding these activities, the client reduces the risk of complications before surgery. Choice B is incorrect because although some activity is encouraged, taking short walks may not be appropriate if the client is experiencing angina and syncope. Choice C is incorrect because waiting for angina to reoccur before taking action can be dangerous, as it may indicate worsening of the condition. Choice D is incorrect because gradually increasing activity may not be safe for someone with aortic stenosis, as it can exacerbate symptoms and increase the risk of complications.

Question 2 of 5

A patient is admitted in acute distress with unrelieved back pain that radiates to his groin. This patient has a history of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). What additional signs and symptoms might the patient state?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bruit to left of the midline in the abdominal area. This is indicative of a possible AAA complication, such as a rupture or impending rupture. A bruit in the abdominal area can signify turbulent blood flow due to the AAA. The other choices are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the symptoms of AAA. Choice A is more indicative of cardiac issues, choice C suggests a possible neurological problem, and choice D is more related to cervical spine issues. Hence, choice B is the most relevant additional sign and symptom in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

A patient has multiple saw-toothed P waves at a rate of 300 beats per minute. This patient's rhythm is most likely

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atrial flutter. Atrial flutter typically presents with a saw-tooth appearance of P waves at a rate of around 250-350 beats per minute. This rhythm is characterized by regular, rapid atrial depolarizations originating from a single ectopic focus in the atria. In contrast, Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT) is usually faster with rates above 150 bpm, Premature atrial contractions (PACs) are isolated premature beats, and Atrial fibrillation is irregularly irregular with no defined P waves. Therefore, the saw-toothed P waves at a rate of 300 bpm align with the characteristics of atrial flutter.

Question 4 of 5

The client is given a calcium channel blocker. Calcium channel blockers have what effect on the heart?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because calcium channel blockers decrease the velocity of electrical activity on the AV node, leading to a decreased heart rate and reduced conduction through the AV node. This results in a negative chronotropic effect, slowing down the heart rate. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Calcium channel blockers do not increase preload on the heart. They may actually reduce preload by dilating blood vessels. C: Calcium channel blockers do not block sodium channels in the heart muscle; they specifically target calcium channels. D: Calcium channel blockers do not cause vasoconstriction of coronary arteries; they often have vasodilatory effects on coronary arteries.

Question 5 of 5

The client is given an alpha agonist. What might it be used for?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

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