The nurse is caring for a client who is HIV positive. To prevent the spread of the HIV virus, what do the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Universal blood and body fluid precautions. This is recommended by the CDC to prevent the spread of HIV because the virus can be present in blood and certain body fluids. Universal precautions involve treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious. Incorrect choices: B: Body systems isolation - This is not specific to preventing the spread of HIV and is not recommended by the CDC. C: Laminar flow room during active infection - This is not a standard recommendation for preventing the spread of HIV. D: Needle and syringe precautions - While important in preventing needlestick injuries, it is not the primary method recommended by the CDC for preventing the spread of HIV.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pathological fractures. In multiple myeloma, abnormal plasma cells can weaken the bones, leading to fractures even with minimal trauma. The nurse should monitor for signs of bone pain, decreased mobility, and pathological fractures to prevent complications. Uncontrolled bleeding (A) is not typically associated with multiple myeloma. Liver engorgement (B) is more commonly seen in conditions like congestive heart failure or liver disease. Respiratory distress (C) is not a common manifestation of multiple myeloma. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for pathological fractures as a priority in a patient with multiple myeloma.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, hormone replacement therapy is needed due to the removal of the pituitary gland. This surgery is typically done to treat pituitary carcinoma, making choice C the correct answer. Pituitary carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the pituitary gland. Esophageal carcinoma affects the esophagus, laryngeal carcinoma affects the larynx, and colorectal carcinoma affects the colon and rectum. Therefore, the correct choice, C, is the only one related to the pituitary gland and the procedure described.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. The nurse made an error in the assessment phase by not communicating the patient's condition promptly. Assessment involves collecting data and recognizing changes in the patient's condition. By not informing the nurse about feeling dizzy and light-headed, the nurse missed crucial information that could have indicated a deteriorating condition. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Diagnosis comes after assessment and involves analyzing data to identify the patient's problems. C: Implementation is the phase where nursing interventions are carried out based on the diagnosis. D: Evaluation is the final phase where the nurse assesses the effectiveness of interventions and outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient being able to ambulate in the hallway with crutches indicates that the expected outcome of improved physical mobility due to the fractured leg has been met. This demonstrates progress towards independence and recovery. A is incorrect because the patient still requires assistance, indicating dependency. C is incorrect because denial of pain does not necessarily indicate improved physical mobility. D is incorrect because it is too general and does not directly show achievement of the specific goal related to physical mobility.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: “You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.” Rationale: 1. Desmopressin is available in intranasal form for diabetes insipidus. 2. Nasal discharge or blockage may prevent proper absorption of the medication. 3. Instructing the client about this potential issue ensures optimal drug effectiveness. Summary: A: Incorrect. Temperature of desmopressin suspension doesn't affect its efficacy. B: Incorrect. A medical identification bracelet is necessary for chronic conditions like diabetes insipidus. D: Incorrect. Monitoring fluid intake and output is crucial when taking desmopressin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Safety: Morbidly obese patients are at higher risk of falls during transfers. 2. Assistance: Having two other personnel ensures safe transfer. 3. Weight distribution: Distributing the patient's weight among multiple helpers reduces strain. 4. Proper body mechanics: Allows for proper positioning and technique while assisting. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Medication doesn't address the safety concern of transferring a morbidly obese patient. C. Reviewing activity orders is not the immediate action needed for the patient's first bathroom transfer. D. Offering a walker may not provide sufficient support for a morbidly obese patient during the transfer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paroxysms or shortness of breath. Asthma is characterized by episodes of wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath, known as paroxysms. This symptom is caused by inflammation and constriction of the airways in response to triggers such as allergens or irritants. A: Production of abnormally thick, sticky mucus in lungs is more indicative of conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. B: Faulty transport of sodium in lung cells is associated with conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. D: Altered electrolyte balance in the sweat glands is a symptom of cystic fibrosis, not asthma. In summary, paroxysms or shortness of breath is a key sign of asthma due to airway inflammation and constriction, distinguishing it from the other choices that are more indicative of cystic fibrosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PERRLA, which stands for Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light, and Accommodation. This documentation reflects a comprehensive assessment of the pupils' response to light and accommodation. The pupils constricting from 4 to 2 mm bilaterally in response to light indicates they are reactive. Additionally, the eyes turning inward when focusing on a near object shows accommodation. Choice A is not the best option because it only mentions the pupil size without capturing other important aspects of the assessment. Choice C is too vague, as it does not specify the exact response of the pupils. Choice D is incorrect because it does not provide a detailed description of the pupils' response to both light and accommodation. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate choice as it encompasses all the necessary components of the assessment.