ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who is HIV positive. To prevent the spread of the HIV virus, what do the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Universal blood and body fluid precautions. This is recommended by the CDC to prevent the spread of HIV because the virus can be present in blood and certain body fluids. Universal precautions involve treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious. Incorrect choices: B: Body systems isolation - This is not specific to preventing the spread of HIV and is not recommended by the CDC. C: Laminar flow room during active infection - This is not a standard recommendation for preventing the spread of HIV. D: Needle and syringe precautions - While important in preventing needlestick injuries, it is not the primary method recommended by the CDC for preventing the spread of HIV.
Question 2 of 9
A newly admitted patient who is morbidly obese asks the nurse for assistance to the bathroom for the first time. Which action should the nurse take initially?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Safety: Morbidly obese patients are at higher risk of falls during transfers. 2. Assistance: Having two other personnel ensures safe transfer. 3. Weight distribution: Distributing the patient's weight among multiple helpers reduces strain. 4. Proper body mechanics: Allows for proper positioning and technique while assisting. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Medication doesn't address the safety concern of transferring a morbidly obese patient. C. Reviewing activity orders is not the immediate action needed for the patient's first bathroom transfer. D. Offering a walker may not provide sufficient support for a morbidly obese patient during the transfer.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following procedures does the nurse understand is used to correct otosclerosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Stapedectomy. This procedure is used to correct otosclerosis by removing the stapes bone and replacing it with a prosthetic device. This restores normal hearing by allowing sound waves to travel through the ear properly. Myringotomy (A) is a procedure to drain fluid from the middle ear, not to correct otosclerosis. Mastoidectomy (B) is the removal of infected mastoid air cells, not related to otosclerosis. Myringoplasty (C) is a surgical procedure to repair a perforated eardrum, not used for otosclerosis. Stapedectomy is the most appropriate choice for correcting otosclerosis as it directly addresses the abnormal bone growth in the middle ear.
Question 4 of 9
As part of primary cancer prevention program, an oncology nurse answers questions from the public at health fair. When someone asks about the laryngeal cancer, the nurse should explain that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Laryngeal cancer is strongly linked to smoking and alcohol consumption. 2. Both smoking and alcohol use are modifiable risk factors, meaning they can be prevented. 3. By avoiding smoking and excessive alcohol intake, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of developing laryngeal cancer. 4. Therefore, laryngeal cancer is considered one of the most preventable types of cancer. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B. Inhaling polluted air can be a risk factor for laryngeal cancer, so this statement is inaccurate. C. Laryngeal cancer occurs more frequently in men than women, so this statement is incorrect. D. Squamous cell carcinoma, not adenocarcinoma, is the most common type of laryngeal cancer, making this statement incorrect.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff is a sign or symptom of asthma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paroxysms or shortness of breath. Asthma is characterized by episodes of wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath, known as paroxysms. This symptom is caused by inflammation and constriction of the airways in response to triggers such as allergens or irritants. A: Production of abnormally thick, sticky mucus in lungs is more indicative of conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. B: Faulty transport of sodium in lung cells is associated with conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. D: Altered electrolyte balance in the sweat glands is a symptom of cystic fibrosis, not asthma. In summary, paroxysms or shortness of breath is a key sign of asthma due to airway inflammation and constriction, distinguishing it from the other choices that are more indicative of cystic fibrosis.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is being given penicillin via IV piggyback and develops an anaphylactic reaction. Which of the following should be the nurse’s first action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Turn off the antibiotic. This should be the nurse's first action because in an anaphylactic reaction, stopping the administration of the causative agent is crucial to prevent further harm. Continuing the antibiotic (Choice B) can worsen the reaction. Calling the doctor (Choice A) may cause a delay in the immediate intervention needed. Calling for help (Choice C) is important but turning off the antibiotic takes precedence to stop the allergen.
Question 7 of 9
For a client with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis, the physician prescribes the corticosteroid prednisone (Deltasone). When caring for this client, the nurse should monitor for which adverse drug reactions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adverse reactions such as increased weight due to fluid retention, hypertension due to sodium retention, and insomnia due to its stimulating effects. Vaginal bleeding, jaundice, inflammation, stupor, breast lumps, pain, dyspnea, numbness, and headache are not commonly associated with prednisone use. Monitoring for weight changes, blood pressure, and sleep patterns is essential when administering prednisone to a client with rheumatoid arthritis for early detection and management of adverse reactions.
Question 8 of 9
Wilma knew that the maximum time when suctioning James is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (30 seconds) because the maximum recommended time for suctioning a patient is typically around 10-15 seconds for each pass. Prolonged suctioning can lead to tissue damage, hypoxia, and increased risk of infection. In this case, given the patient's symptoms and medical history (vomiting, weight loss, dehydration, hypotension), it is crucial to limit suction time to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they exceed the safe duration for suctioning and increase the risk of harm to the patient. Choice D, in particular, is significantly longer than the recommended time and could pose serious risks to the patient's health in this situation.
Question 9 of 9
A client with primary diabetes insipidus is ready for discharge on desmopressin (DDAVP). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.” Rationale: 1. Desmopressin is available in intranasal form for diabetes insipidus. 2. Nasal discharge or blockage may prevent proper absorption of the medication. 3. Instructing the client about this potential issue ensures optimal drug effectiveness. Summary: A: Incorrect. Temperature of desmopressin suspension doesn't affect its efficacy. B: Incorrect. A medical identification bracelet is necessary for chronic conditions like diabetes insipidus. D: Incorrect. Monitoring fluid intake and output is crucial when taking desmopressin.