ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy and is at risk for hypocalcemia. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Observe for muscle twitching and numbness or tingling of the lips, fingers, and toes. After a thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands may be inadvertently damaged, leading to hypocalcemia. Muscle twitching and numbness/tingling are early signs of hypocalcemia. The nurse should monitor for these symptoms to detect and address hypocalcemia promptly. Choice A is incorrect as monitoring thyroid-stimulating hormone levels is not related to hypocalcemia. Choice B is incorrect as it describes signs of potential complications like bleeding or airway obstruction, not hypocalcemia. Choice C is incorrect as changes in voice quality and gastric issues are not specific to hypocalcemia.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is preparing to assist the physician with a bone marrow biopsy. Which of the ff. interventions is most important for the nurse to do before the procedure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Observe the patient for bleeding. Before a bone marrow biopsy, it is crucial to monitor the patient for bleeding tendencies as the procedure can cause bleeding. This step ensures early detection and prompt intervention if bleeding occurs. Explanation for other choices: A: Explaining the procedure to the family is important for informed consent but not the most crucial before the procedure. C: Administering an analgesic may be necessary for pain management but monitoring for bleeding takes precedence. D: Draping the biopsy site is important for maintaining a sterile field but does not directly impact patient safety like monitoring for bleeding.
Question 3 of 9
An adult is to receive narcotic analgesics via patient controlled analgesia. The nurse is evaluating client’s understanding of the procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that she understand PCA?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I will press the button whenever I feel pain." This answer demonstrates understanding of how patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) works, where the client self-administers medication when needed for pain relief. Option A is incorrect as the machine is programmed with lockout intervals to prevent overdosing. Option C is incorrect as the client should only press the button when experiencing pain, not on a fixed schedule. Option D is incorrect as PCA does not guarantee complete pain elimination. The key in PCA is empowering the client to self-administer medication based on their pain level.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following blood types would the nurse identify as the rarest?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (AB). AB blood type is the rarest because it is a result of inheriting both A and B alleles, making it less common in the population. AB individuals can only receive blood from other AB individuals due to their unique antigens. Blood types A, B, and O are more common in the population, with O being the most common as it is the universal donor. Blood type A and B are more common than AB since they only require one allele for their respective antigens. Thus, the rarity of AB blood type is due to the inheritance of both A and B alleles, making it the least common among the choices provided.
Question 5 of 9
Management of hypercalcemia includes all of the following actions except administration of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because administration of the diuretic furosemide without saline is not recommended for managing hypercalcemia. Furosemide can lead to volume depletion and potentially exacerbate hypercalcemia by concentrating calcium levels in the blood. A: Fluid administration helps dilute calcium levels by increasing urine output. C: Inorganic phosphate salts can bind with calcium in the gut, reducing absorption. D: Intravenous phosphate therapy can help lower calcium levels by promoting calcium-phosphate complex formation. In summary, B is incorrect as it may worsen hypercalcemia, while A, C, and D are valid strategies for managing hypercalcemia.
Question 6 of 9
A client with Addison’s disease comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. When assessing this client, the nurse should stay alert for signs and symptoms of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone. This leads to sodium and potassium imbalances. Low aldosterone causes sodium loss and potassium retention, resulting in sodium and potassium abnormalities. The other choices, A, B, and C, do not directly relate to Addison's disease. Calcium and phosphorus abnormalities are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Sodium and chloride, and chloride and magnesium imbalances are not primary concerns in Addison's disease. Therefore, staying alert for signs and symptoms of sodium and potassium abnormalities is crucial in managing and monitoring a client with Addison's disease.
Question 7 of 9
A client with pernicious anemia is receiving parenteral vitamin B12 therapy. Which client statement indicates effective teaching about this therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will receive parenteral vitamin B12 therapy for the rest of my life.” This statement is correct because pernicious anemia is a lifelong condition requiring ongoing vitamin B12 supplementation. Patients with pernicious anemia lack intrinsic factor, which is needed to absorb vitamin B12 from food. Therefore, they need lifelong B12 therapy to prevent complications such as anemia and neurological damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they suggest a limited duration of therapy. Pernicious anemia is a chronic condition that necessitates continuous treatment. Choice A implies therapy until signs and symptoms disappear, which may not address the underlying cause of the deficiency. Choice B mentions therapy until vitamin B12 levels normalize, which may not prevent recurrence. Choice C suggests monthly therapy for a fixed period, which may not be sufficient for lifelong management.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse will monitor J.E. for the following signs and symptoms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs and symptoms listed are indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is a serious condition where blood clotting and bleeding occur simultaneously. Change in level of consciousness can indicate hypoperfusion from clotting in blood vessels. Tachypnea and tachycardia can result from tissue hypoxia. Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical signs and symptoms of DIC. Choice B suggests a possible myocardial infarction or acute coronary syndrome. Choice C indicates a possible thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) or acute limb ischemia. Choice D suggests a mix of symptoms that do not typically present together in DIC.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse adds a nursing diagnosis to a patient’s care plan. Which information did the nurse document?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it follows the correct format of a nursing diagnosis: "Problem related to Etiology." In this case, "Decreased cardiac output" is the problem, and "altered myocardial contractility" is the cause. This format helps identify the specific issue and its underlying cause, allowing for targeted interventions. Choice B is incorrect as it doesn't follow the problem-etiology format and lacks specificity. Choice C is also incorrect as it lacks a clear nursing diagnosis and specific etiology. Choice D is incorrect as it presents a symptom rather than a nursing diagnosis with an associated cause. Overall, choice A is the best option as it provides a clear, specific nursing diagnosis that guides appropriate nursing interventions.