The nurse is caring for a client receiving morphine sulfate for pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

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RN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 2 Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client receiving morphine sulfate for pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Morphine, an opioid, depresses the respiratory center, and a rate of 10 breaths per minute signals potential overdose, requiring immediate intervention (e.g., naloxone) to reverse life-threatening hypoventilation. Blood pressure and pulse are normal, not urgent. Pain at 4/10 suggests control, not distress. Respiratory depression is morphine's most dangerous effect, especially in acute settings, where even slight drops below 12 bpm demand action. This aligns with opioid pharmacology'mu-receptor agonism slows breathing'making A the priority finding to address swiftly for client safety.

Question 2 of 9

Which one of the following pairs of 'drug/mechanism of action' is most accurate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Lithium's mood-stabilizing effect in bipolar disorder involves inhibiting inositol monophosphatase, reducing inositol recycling and dampening overactive phosphoinositide signaling, a unique mechanism. Carbamazepine blocks sodium channels, not GABA facilitation (that's barbiturates). Ethosuximide inhibits T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons, not sodium channels, to control absence seizures. Phenelzine, an MAOI, inhibits monoamine oxidase, not dopa decarboxylase (carbidopa does that). Procaine, a local anesthetic, blocks sodium channels, not T-type calcium channels. Lithium's inositol depletion is well-established, aligning with its therapeutic role and distinguishing it as the most accurate pairing here.

Question 3 of 9

A client is receiving methocarbamol (Robaxin) as an adjunct to physical therapy for the relief of painful muscle discomfort. Which of the following is not true regarding the use of the medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Methocarbamol can cause urine discoloration, and rapid intravenous administration may lead to hypotension and bradycardia. However, the use of cold or allergy medicines does not lessen its side effects. The parenteral form is contraindicated in patients with liver damage due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. This statement is incorrect and not supported by the drug's pharmacology.

Question 4 of 9

Sedatives and hypnotics are drugs which act as:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Sedatives and hypnotics are drugs that belong to the class of central nervous system depressants. These drugs work by slowing down the activity of the brain and the central nervous system, leading to a calming or sedative effect. They are commonly prescribed to induce sleep (hypnotics) or reduce anxiety (sedatives) by depressing the excitability of nerve cells. This property makes them effective in producing sedation, relaxation, and sleep in individuals. Therefore, the correct classification for sedatives and hypnotics is as depressants.

Question 5 of 9

What is a serious adverse reaction to penicillin?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur after exposure to penicillin or other antibiotics. It is considered a serious adverse reaction because it can be life-threatening. Symptoms of anaphylaxis may include difficulty breathing, hives, swelling of the face and throat, rapid heartbeat, and a drop in blood pressure. Immediate medical attention is required if an individual experiences anaphylaxis after taking penicillin.

Question 6 of 9

A 56-year-old man with progressive, chronic renal impairment is awaiting renal replacement therapy. His treatment includes calcium carbonate tablets, furosemide, irbesartan and amlodipine. He is admitted severely unwell with a BP of 40 by palpation, pulse 112. An ECG shows a broad complex tachycardia with no P waves. Serum Ca2+ is 2.3 mmol/L, PO4 1.7 mmol/L, creatinine 785 μmol/L, Na+ 142 mmol/L, K+ 7.4 mmol/L. Which of the following would be appropriate management?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia (K+ 7.4 mmol/L) in renal failure causes broad complex tachycardia, risking arrest. Amiodarone treats arrhythmias but not hyperkalemia's cause. Digoxin is contraindicated in hyperkalemia and renal failure. IV calcium gluconate stabilizes cardiac membranes, countering potassium's depolarizing effect, appropriate immediate management. Pacing or colestyramine (potassium binder) are secondary. Calcium's rapid action protects the heart, buying time for dialysis, critical in this life-threatening scenario.

Question 7 of 9

A 62-year-old man with Parkinson's disease on levodopa and carbidopa presents to his primary care physician for follow-up. He is following his prescribed course of medications. He is stable in terms of his motor function but recently has begun to have visual and auditory hallucinations. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hallucinations in a Parkinson's patient on levodopa/carbidopa suggest a medication-related issue. Drug toxicity is correct-levodopa increases dopamine, and excess in non-motor areas (e.g., mesolimbic) can cause hallucinations, especially with long-term use or dose accumulation. Overactivity at basal ganglia improves motor symptoms, not hallucinations. Subtherapeutic dosing would worsen motor control, not cause this. Dementia or infection (E) could contribute, but hallucinations align more with levodopa's known side effect profile. Carbidopa reduces peripheral effects, but central dopamine excess remains possible, making toxicity the likely culprit in this stable motor context.

Question 8 of 9

A patient has been taking a beta blocker for 4 weeks as part of his antianginal therapy. He also has type II diabetes and hyperthyroidism. When discussing possible adverse effects, the nurse will include which information?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct information to include when discussing possible adverse effects of beta blockers with a patient who has type II diabetes and hyperthyroidism is to "Monitor your blood glucose levels for possible hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia." Beta blockers can mask the signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) in patients with diabetes by suppressing the sympathetic nervous system response to low blood sugar. This can lead to a delay in recognizing and treating hypoglycemia, which can be dangerous for diabetic patients. Additionally, beta blockers can also affect glucose metabolism and potentially worsen hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is essential to manage these potential adverse effects and adjust the treatment regimen as needed.

Question 9 of 9

During pharmacology class, the student nurse asks the nursing instructor how students will ever learn about the individual antibiotic drugs since there are so many. What is the best response by the nursing instructor?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Learning a representative (prototype) drug from each antibiotic class simplifies understanding by focusing on shared traits-mechanisms, effects, and side effects-reducing the burden of memorizing every drug. Mnemonics aid recall but don't teach concepts. Flow charts organize but lack depth. Categorizing is broad, while prototypes offer a practical, foundational approach, widely used in pharmacology education for mastery.

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