ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client receiving gentamicin (Garamycin). Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gentamicin risks ototoxicity, causing tinnitus (ringing, choice A), a serious sign needing immediate reporting to prevent hearing loss. Food doesn't apply'IV delivery. Calcium is irrelevant. Stopping early risks resistance. Reporting tinnitus aligns with gentamicin's toxicity profile, critical in therapy where auditory damage is irreversible, making A the key instruction.
Question 2 of 5
It is a measure of drug activity in terms of the amount required to produce an effect.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Potency refers to the measure of drug activity in terms of the amount required to produce a particular effect. It is the strength or concentration of a drug that is needed to produce a specific effect. Potency is often expressed as the dose of a drug required to produce a certain response compared to a standard reference dose. It is an essential consideration in pharmacology as it helps determine the appropriate dosage needed for therapeutic effects and to avoid potential toxicity. Potency is distinct from efficacy, which is the ability of a drug to produce a desired effect regardless of the dose.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is hypokalemic and will be receiving IV potassium. The patient is not on a heart monitor. How should the nurse administer the potassium replacement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When administering IV potassium to a hypokalemic patient who is not on a heart monitor, it's important to ensure a controlled rate of infusion to prevent dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. The recommended maximum rate for IV potassium replacement in this scenario is typically no more than 20 mEq/hour. Faster administration rates can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and potentially lead to serious cardiac complications. Monitoring the patient closely for signs of hyperkalemia such as ECG changes or muscle weakness is also crucial during potassium replacement therapy.
Question 4 of 5
A male patient is undergoing chemotherapy may also be given the drug allopurinol (Zyloprim, Aloprim). Allopurinol inhibits the synthesis of uric acid. Concomitant administration of allopurinol prevents:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol is primarily used to prevent gout and hyperuricemia, which are common side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy often leads to the rapid destruction of cancer cells, releasing large amounts of uric acid into the bloodstream. This can cause hyperuricemia, leading to gout or kidney stones. Allopurinol works by inhibiting xanthine oxidase, an enzyme involved in uric acid production, thereby reducing uric acid levels. While myelosuppression and pancytopenia are concerns during chemotherapy, they are not directly addressed by allopurinol. Similarly, allopurinol does not inhibit cancer cell growth or replication.
Question 5 of 5
A 6-year-old boy is brought to his primary care physician with a history of hay fever and asthma. He usually has two to three attacks per week. For symptom control, he uses an albuterol inhaler, but his parents would like to try something more. They would like him to take something that would lessen the amount of attacks he has. Although corticosteroids would probably work best for prophylaxis, they are contraindicated in children. He is instead given montelukast. How does montelukast work?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Montelukast prevents asthma attacks by blocking leukotriene receptors . Leukotrienes drive inflammation; montelukast reduces this, complementing albuterol's acute relief. Muscarinic blockade is ipratropium's action. COX inhibition (C, D) is NSAIDs'. Lipoxygenase inhibition (E) is zileuton's. Montelukast's specificity suits prophylaxis in this child.