ATI RN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client in labor with a history of cesarean delivery. What is a priority assessment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess for signs of uterine rupture. This is the priority assessment because a history of cesarean delivery puts the client at higher risk for uterine rupture during labor. Signs of uterine rupture include severe abdominal pain, abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, and vaginal bleeding. Early detection and intervention are crucial for the safety of both the mother and the baby. Monitoring maternal temperature (B) is important but not as critical as assessing for uterine rupture. Checking for signs of preeclampsia (C) is also important but not a priority in this specific scenario. Assessing for excessive fetal movement (D) is not a priority assessment in this case.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks' gestation with suspected preterm labor. What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer corticosteroids as prescribed. Administering corticosteroids helps accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. It is the priority action in suspected preterm labor at 34 weeks' gestation. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: Encouraging ambulation may not be safe in preterm labor as it can increase the risk of delivering the baby prematurely. C: Providing a high-protein snack is not the priority action in suspected preterm labor. D: Monitoring maternal blood pressure is important, but not the priority in this situation where the focus is on preventing complications for the preterm infant.
Question 3 of 5
A client at 12 weeks' gestation reports nausea and vomiting. What is the best dietary advice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consume small, frequent meals throughout the day. This advice helps manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy by preventing an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Eating small, frequent meals helps stabilize blood sugar levels and provides a steady source of nutrients for the developing fetus. It also reduces the likelihood of triggering nausea by avoiding large meals. Drinking fluids with meals (choice B) may exacerbate symptoms by filling up the stomach too quickly. Eating three large meals a day (choice A) can lead to overeating and may worsen nausea. Avoiding protein-rich foods (choice D) is not recommended as protein is essential for fetal development and overall health during pregnancy.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is monitoring a client with severe preeclampsia. What finding requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep tendon reflexes +4. In severe preeclampsia, increased reflexes indicate possible progression to eclampsia with seizures. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent seizures. Choice A is not urgent unless higher proteinuria levels are present. Choice B is within normal range. Choice D is concerning but not as urgent as managing potential seizures.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with suspected preterm labor. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Magnesium sulfate. This medication is commonly prescribed for preterm labor to relax the uterine muscles and prevent contractions. It helps delay labor and reduce the risk of preterm birth. Methyldopa (B) is used for managing hypertension, not preterm labor. Rho(D) immune globulin (C) is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent hemolytic disease in newborns. Oxytocin (D) is used to induce or augment labor, not for suspected preterm labor. Therefore, A is the most appropriate choice for managing preterm labor.