ATI RN
Professional Nursing Concepts and Challenges Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a child with a fractured femur who complains of sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. Which test would the nurse question if it was ordered by the physician?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse would question the order for a D-dimer test in this case. A D-dimer test is a blood test used to help rule out or diagnose blood clots. However, in a child with a fractured femur complaining of sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing, the symptoms suggest the possibility of a pulmonary embolism (PE). In this scenario, a D-dimer test may not be necessary because the clinical presentation warrants more advanced imaging studies such as V/Q scans, CT pulmonary angiography, or MR pulmonary angiography to definitively diagnose or rule out a PE. Therefore, the focus should be on imaging studies rather than a D-dimer test in this situation.
Question 2 of 9
A home health nurse is admitting a new client to the agency who was recently discharged from the hospital with a new diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis. What is the best way for the nurse to evaluate whether the client is able to set up and administer a nebulizer treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Direct observation of behavior is the best way for the nurse to evaluate whether the client is able to set up and administer a nebulizer treatment. By directly observing the client, the nurse can assess the client's understanding and ability in performing the necessary steps correctly and safely. This approach allows for real-time evaluation and correction if needed, ensuring that the client can effectively manage their nebulizer treatment at home. Written or oral descriptions may not accurately reflect the client's actual competency in performing the task, and relying on the client's self-report during a follow-up appointment may not provide a complete picture of their ability.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client during labor and delivery. Which condition should the nurse recognize as a risk factor for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placental abruption is the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. This condition is a significant risk factor for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) because the sudden detachment can lead to massive internal bleeding. The release of large amounts of tissue factor from the placenta into the maternal circulation triggers widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to the consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This uncontrolled activation of the clotting system can result in both excessive clot formation and bleeding, characteristic of DIC. Gestational diabetes, polyhydramnios, and placenta previa are not direct risk factors for DIC.
Question 4 of 9
A client admitted with the diagnosis of cardiomyopathy becomes short of breath with ambulation and eating and fatigued with routine care activities. Which nursing diagnosis does the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Activity intolerance is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with cardiomyopathy who becomes short of breath with ambulation and eating and fatigued with routine care activities. Cardiomyopathy is a condition where the heart muscle becomes weakened, affecting its ability to pump blood effectively. As a result, the client may experience symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and decreased tolerance for physical activity. By identifying activity intolerance as a nursing diagnosis, the nurse can focus on addressing the client's limitations in performing activities and developing a plan of care to help improve the client's endurance and functional ability.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse instructs a client about the medication nifedipine (Procardia) for hypertension. Which client statement indicates that additional teaching is needed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Swelling of the ankles (edema) is a common side effect of nifedipine (Procardia), especially when starting the medication. However, it is important for the client to understand that while edema is a known side effect, it is not considered normal and should be monitored. The client should report any significant or concerning swelling to their healthcare provider. Options B, C, and D demonstrate good understanding of the medication and its management.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for developing deep venous thrombosis (DVT)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client recovering from knee replacement surgery has the greatest risk for developing deep venous thrombosis (DVT). Knee replacement surgery is a major orthopedic procedure that involves prolonged immobility and disruption of the normal blood flow in the lower extremities, which increases the risk of developing DVT. Postoperative patients are at a higher risk for developing blood clots due to reduced mobility, surgical trauma, and alterations in blood flow. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to implement preventive measures to reduce the risk of DVT, such as early mobilization, compression stockings, and pharmacological prophylaxis.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with inflammatory bowel disease is prescribed sulfasalazine (Azulfidine). What should the nurse teach the patient about taking this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sulfasalazine can cause photosensitivity, making the patient more prone to sunburn. Therefore, it is important for patients taking sulfasalazine to use sunscreen to protect their skin from harmful UV rays. This can help prevent sunburn and skin damage while on the medication. It is not necessary to take vitamin C with this drug, take it on an empty stomach, or limit fluid intake to 1500 mL per day.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse identifies that a patient with immobility is at risk for the development of urolithiasis. What should the nurse include when planning this patient’s care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Immobility can contribute to the development of urolithiasis (the formation of urinary calculi or stones) due to decreased mobility leading to stagnant urine flow, which can result in the concentration of crystal-forming substances in the urine. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent urinary stasis and dilutes the urine, reducing the risk of stone formation. Adequate hydration can also help flush out any existing crystals or small stones before they grow larger. Therefore, increasing fluid intake to 3000 mL/day is essential in preventing urolithiasis in patients with immobility. Monitoring urine pH, administering calcium supplements, or maintaining an indwelling urinary catheter are not appropriate interventions for preventing urolithiasis in this situation.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a patient with an acute attack of gout. Which laboratory value should the nurse expect to be increased?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with an acute attack of gout, the nurse should expect the uric acid level to be increased. Gout occurs due to the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. Monitoring the uric acid level is important in diagnosing and managing gout, as elevated levels indicate an increased risk of crystal formation and gout attacks. Therefore, an increased uric acid level is a key laboratory finding in patients experiencing gout flares.