The nurse is caring for a 70-kg patient in septic shock with a pulmonary artery catheter. Which hemodynamic value indicates an appropriate response to therapy aimed at enhancing oxygen delivery to the organs and tissues?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mixed venous (SvO2) of 40%. In septic shock, improving oxygen delivery to tissues is vital. SvO2 reflects the balance between oxygen delivery and consumption. A value of 40% indicates adequate oxygen delivery to tissues. A: Arterial lactate level of 1.0 mEq/L - Although a low lactate level is good, it does not directly indicate improved oxygen delivery. B: Cardiac output of 2.5 L/min - Cardiac output should ideally increase to improve oxygen delivery, so 2.5 L/min is low for a 70-kg patient. D: Cardiac index of 1.5 L/min/m2 - Cardiac index is cardiac output adjusted for body surface area. 1.5 L/min/m2 is low and indicates inadequate cardiac function for a patient in septic shock.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Because the patient is unconscious, complete care as quickly and quietly as possible. This is the most appropriate intervention as it prioritizes the patient's comfort and minimizes unnecessary stimulation. Performing care quickly reduces the time the patient is exposed to potentially uncomfortable procedures. Being quiet also helps create a calming environment for the patient, which is important for someone who is unresponsive. Explanation for other choices: A: Asking a family member to help and discussing family structure is not appropriate as it can be intrusive and may not be relevant or beneficial to the patient's care. C: Informing the patient of the day and time is unnecessary as the patient is unresponsive. Providing care is more crucial than updating the patient. D: Turning on the television is inappropriate as it introduces unnecessary noise and distraction, which can be overwhelming for an unresponsive patient.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the healthcare surrogate should base decisions on recommendations of the physician and healthcare team who have the expertise to provide medical advice. They are best positioned to understand the patient's condition and treatment options. Personal beliefs (A) may not align with medical best practices. Family and friends' recommendations (B) may not be informed by medical knowledge. Wishes previously expressed by the patient (D) are important but may need to be interpreted in the context of the current medical situation, which healthcare professionals can provide.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because volunteering to serve on a disaster response planning committee demonstrates awareness of current events affecting critical care nursing. By actively participating in planning for potential disasters, the nurse shows a proactive approach to staying informed and prepared for emergencies. This behavior indicates a commitment to staying up-to-date with the evolving landscape of critical care nursing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A: Participating in recruitment efforts may be important but does not directly demonstrate awareness of current events affecting critical care nursing. C: Adhering to basic nursing program content is necessary but does not show active engagement with current events in critical care nursing. D: Attending hospital-mandated in-services is valuable, but without seeking additional education or involvement in current events, it does not illustrate awareness of the changing critical care nursing environment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because participating on the unit's nurse practice council demonstrates adherence to the AACN Standards of Professional Performance, specifically the standard related to quality of practice. By actively engaging in the nurse practice council, the nurse contributes to the development and implementation of policies and procedures that promote quality patient care. This activity also involves collaboration, leadership, and advocacy, which are essential components of professional nursing practice. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Attending a meeting and receiving continuing education on sepsis is important for professional development but does not directly align with the AACN Standards of Professional Performance. B: Collaborating with a pastoral services colleague is essential for holistic patient care but does not specifically address the standards set by the AACN. D: Posting an article for colleagues to read is beneficial for knowledge sharing but does not directly demonstrate adherence to the AACN Standards of Professional Performance.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Regular insulin Rationale: 1. Insulin promotes cellular uptake of potassium. 2. When insulin is administered, it moves potassium from extracellular to intracellular space. 3. This decreases plasma potassium levels safely. 4. Other options do not directly lower potassium levels in the same manner. Summary of Other Choices: A: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate - exchanges sodium for potassium in the intestines, not reducing total body potassium. B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate with sorbitol - similar to A, does not reduce total body potassium. D: Calcium gluconate - does not directly lower potassium levels, used for treating hyperkalemia-induced cardiac toxicity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sensory overload. Constant noise from medical equipment can overwhelm the patient's senses, leading to sensory overload. This can result in increased stress levels, difficulty concentrating, and overall discomfort. Anxiety (A) is related to worry and fear, but in this context, the primary stressor is sensory overload, not anxiety. Pain (B) is a physical sensation, not directly related to the sensory overload caused by noise. Powerlessness (C) refers to a lack of control or influence, which is not the primary form of stress induced by constant noise. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it directly correlates with the impact of the noise on the patient's sensory perception.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: New ST segment elevation is noted on the cardiac monitor. This finding is concerning because it may indicate myocardial ischemia or infarction, which can be exacerbated by the physiological stress of weaning from mechanical ventilation. It is crucial to address any cardiac issues before initiating a spontaneous breathing trial to prevent potential cardiac complications during the weaning process. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: B: Enteral feedings being given through an orogastric tube are not contraindicated for starting a spontaneous breathing trial. C: Scattered rhonchi heard when auscultating breath sounds may indicate retained secretions but are not a contraindication for a spontaneous breathing trial. D: The use of HYDROmorphone to treat postoperative pain is not a contraindication for a spontaneous breathing trial unless it is causing respiratory depression, which would need to be addressed separately.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because positioning the zero-reference stopcock line level with the hemostatic axis ensures accurate arterial pressure monitoring. Placing the stopcock at the hemostatic axis allows for correct measurement of blood pressure without any errors due to height differences. This positioning helps in obtaining precise and reliable readings. A: Balancing and calibrating the monitoring equipment every 2 hours is important for equipment maintenance but does not directly impact the accuracy of arterial pressure monitoring. C: Ensuring the patient is supine with the head of the bed flat is a standard position for arterial pressure monitoring but does not specifically address the correct positioning of the stopcock. D: Rechecking the location of the hemostatic axis when changing the patient's position is essential for maintaining accuracy, but it does not directly relate to the initial correct positioning of the stopcock.