ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 63-year-old patient with ovarian cancer. The patient is to receive chemotherapy consisting of Taxol and Paraplatin. For what adverse effect of this treatment should the nurse monitor the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Taxol and Paraplatin are known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased white blood cell counts. Leukopenia can increase the patient's risk of infection, so monitoring for signs of infection is crucial. Metabolic acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with Taxol and Paraplatin chemotherapy.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse asks a patient where the pain is, andthe patient responds by pointing to the area of pain. Which form of communication did the patient use?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nonverbal. The patient used nonverbal communication by pointing to the area of pain, which is a form of expressing information without words. This choice is correct because pointing is a nonverbal gesture that conveys a specific message. Verbal communication (A) involves spoken or written words, which were not used in this scenario. Intonation (C) refers to the rise and fall of the voice in speech, which was not demonstrated by the patient. Vocabulary (D) is the range of words known or used by a person, but the patient did not use words to communicate in this situation. In summary, the patient used nonverbal communication through pointing, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is developing a plan to reduce data entryerrors and maintain confidentiality. Which guidelines should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Implement an automatic sign-off. This guideline helps reduce data entry errors by ensuring that all entries are completed and saved before exiting the system, thus maintaining confidentiality. Bypassing the firewall (A) would compromise data security. Creating a password with just letters (C) may not be secure enough. Using a programmed speed-dial key when faxing (D) is unrelated to reducing data entry errors or maintaining confidentiality.
Question 4 of 9
A patient was tested for HIV using enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and results were positive. The nurse should expect the primary care provider to order what test to confirm the EIA test results?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Western blot test. The Western blot test is considered the gold standard for confirming HIV diagnosis after a positive EIA result. It detects specific antibodies to HIV proteins, providing a more accurate confirmation. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Another EIA test would yield the same result as the initial EIA test. B: Viral load test measures the amount of virus in the blood and is not used to confirm HIV diagnosis. D: CD4/CD8 ratio is used to monitor immune status but not to confirm HIV diagnosis.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 63-year-old patient with ovarian cancer. The patient is to receive chemotherapy consisting of Taxol and Paraplatin. For what adverse effect of this treatment should the nurse monitor the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Taxol and Paraplatin are known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased white blood cell counts. Leukopenia can increase the patient's risk of infection, so monitoring for signs of infection is crucial. Metabolic acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with Taxol and Paraplatin chemotherapy.
Question 6 of 9
On otoscopy, a red blemish behind the tympanic membrane is suggestive of what diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholesteatoma. A red blemish behind the tympanic membrane is indicative of a cholesteatoma, which is a noncancerous cyst in the middle ear. This occurs due to the accumulation of skin cells and debris in the middle ear space. Other choices (A, C, D) are not associated with a red blemish on otoscopy. An acoustic tumor (A) typically presents as a slow-growing mass on the vestibulocochlear nerve. Facial nerve neuroma (C) involves the facial nerve and does not typically cause a red blemish. Glomus tympanicum (D) is a vascular tumor arising from the middle ear but does not usually present as a red blemish.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is teaching a health class about the nutritional requirements throughout the life span. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because infants typically triple their birth weight by 1 year of age due to rapid growth and development. This information is crucial for understanding normal growth patterns in infants. Choice B is incorrect as picky eating behavior is common in toddlers but not a universal characteristic. Choice C is incorrect as school-age children can consume hot dogs and grapes safely as long as they are cut into appropriate sizes to prevent choking hazards. Choice D is incorrect as breastfeeding women actually need an additional 450-500 kcal/day, not 750 kcal/day.
Question 8 of 9
A hospital nurse has experienced percutaneous exposure to an HIV-positive patients blood as a result of a needlestick injury. The nurse has informed the supervisor and identified the patient. What action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report to the emergency department or employee health department. 1. Immediate action is crucial after exposure to HIV-positive blood. 2. Reporting to the emergency department or employee health department ensures prompt evaluation and appropriate management. 3. The supervisor should also be informed to initiate the necessary protocols. 4. The other choices are incorrect: - A: Chlorhexidine may not be sufficient for post-exposure prophylaxis. - C: Hydrocolloid dressing is not appropriate for managing needlestick injuries. - D: Following up with the primary care provider may cause delays in receiving timely post-exposure prophylaxis.
Question 9 of 9
Which instructions should thNe UnuRrsSe IinNclGudTeB w.hCenO tMeaching a pregnant patient with Class II heart disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because pregnant patients with Class II heart disease should avoid strenuous activity to prevent further strain on the heart. Strenuous activity can increase the risk of complications in these patients. Option A is incorrect as excessive weight gain can exacerbate heart disease. Option C is incorrect because limiting fluid intake can lead to dehydration, which is harmful during pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as a diet high in calcium is not specifically indicated for pregnant patients with Class II heart disease.