ATI RN
clinical skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. A continuous insulin intravenous infusion is started, and hourly bedside glucose monitoring is ordered. The targeted blood glucose value after the first hour of therapy is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values. In diabetic ketoacidosis, there is severe hyperglycemia which needs to be corrected gradually to prevent complications like cerebral edema. A rapid decrease in glucose levels can lead to osmotic shifts and neurological issues. The targeted decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL is considered safe and effective in managing hyperglycemia in these patients. This range ensures a controlled reduction in blood glucose levels without causing harm. Choice A (70 to 120 mg/dL) is too broad and may lead to overly aggressive treatment. Choice B (a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL) is too conservative and may not adequately address the high glucose levels seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D (less than 200 mg/dL) does not provide a specific target range for glucose reduction, which is essential in managing diabetic ketoacidosis effectively.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone major abdominal surgery. The nurse notices that the patient’s urine output has been less than 20 mL/hour for the past 2 hours. The patient’s blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and the pulse is 110 beats/min. Previously, the pulse was 90 beats/min with a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse should
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Urine output < 20 mL/hour indicates potential hypoperfusion. 2. Decreased urine output with hypotension and tachycardia suggests inadequate fluid resuscitation. 3. Administering a normal saline bolus can help improve perfusion and stabilize blood pressure. 4. Contacting the provider promptly for orders is crucial in managing this acute situation. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B. Delaying reporting to the provider risks worsening the patient's condition. C. Continuing to evaluate urine output without intervention can lead to further deterioration. D. Ignoring the urine output due to potential postrenal causes overlooks the urgent need for fluid resuscitation.
Question 3 of 9
Slow continuous ultrafiltration is also known as isolated ultrafiltration and is used to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Slow continuous ultrafiltration is a method used to remove excess plasma water in cases of volume overload, making choice A the correct answer. This process does not involve adding dialysate (choice C) or combining ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis (choice D). While ultrafiltration does involve the removal of fluids and solutes, it is primarily achieved through ultrafiltration rather than convection (choice B).
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the 83-year-old long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimer's disease who recently developed influenza is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). This patient has multiple risk factors for HHS, including age, type 2 diabetes, advanced Alzheimer's disease, and the added stress of influenza, which can exacerbate hyperglycemia. The combination of these factors can lead to severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances characteristic of HHS. Choice A is incorrect because although excessive exercise can lead to hypoglycemia in individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is not a risk factor for HHS. Choice B is incorrect as forgetting to take insulin can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetes, not HHS. Choice C is incorrect as starting insulin injections in a patient with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease does not automatically increase the risk
Question 5 of 9
What is a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (80 mL/hour) as it is considered a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg. Adequate urine output is crucial for kidney function and fluid balance. The general rule is to maintain a urine output of at least 0.5 mL/kg/hour, which in this case would be 37.5 mL/hour for a 75 kg patient. Option C (80 mL/hour) exceeds this minimum requirement, ensuring proper kidney perfusion and waste elimination. Options A (Less than 30 mL/hour) and D (150 mL/hour) are incorrect as they fall below or exceed the recommended urine output range, potentially indicating renal impairment or fluid overload, respectively. Option B (37 mL/hour) is close to the minimum requirement but does not provide a sufficient margin for variations in fluid status or kidney function.
Question 6 of 9
A 100-kg patient gets hemodialysis 3 days a week. In planning the care for this patient, the nurse recommends
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a diet of 2500 to 3500 kcal per day. During hemodialysis, patients often experience increased energy expenditure due to the treatment process. Therefore, maintaining a higher caloric intake is crucial to prevent malnutrition and support the body's needs. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as limiting protein intake to less than 50 grams per day may lead to malnutrition in a patient undergoing hemodialysis, restricting potassium intake to 10 mEq per day may not be appropriate as individual needs vary, and restricting fluid intake to less than 500 mL per day can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in a patient undergoing hemodialysis.
Question 7 of 9
Identify which substances in the glomerular filtrate would indicate a problem with renal function. (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of protein in the glomerular filtrate indicates a problem with renal function as healthy kidneys should not allow large molecules like proteins to pass through the filtration barrier. This could be a sign of kidney damage or dysfunction. Sodium, creatinine, and red blood cells are normally present in the filtrate and are not specific indicators of renal function issues. Sodium is actively reabsorbed in the renal tubules, creatinine is a waste product filtered by the kidneys, and a small number of red blood cells may pass through the filtration barrier under normal circumstances.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who was admitted with renal insufficiency. An expected laboratory finding for this patient may be
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Increased ability to excrete drugs. Rationale: 1. Renal insufficiency impairs kidney function, leading to decreased excretion of drugs. 2. In elderly patients with renal insufficiency, there may be compensatory mechanisms to enhance drug excretion. 3. This increased ability to excrete drugs helps prevent drug accumulation and potential toxicity. Summary: A: Increased GFR is not expected in renal insufficiency; it typically decreases. B: Serum creatinine level would likely be elevated in renal insufficiency, not normal. D: Hypokalemia is not a typical lab finding in renal insufficiency; hyperkalemia is more common.
Question 9 of 9
The most significant clinical finding of acute adrenal crisis associated with fluid and electrolyte imbalance is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (C: hyperkalemia): 1. Adrenal crisis leads to adrenal insufficiency, causing decreased cortisol levels. 2. Cortisol plays a crucial role in regulating potassium levels. 3. With decreased cortisol, potassium levels can rise, leading to hyperkalemia. 4. Hyperkalemia can result in life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Summary: A: Fluid volume excess is not typical in adrenal crisis. B: Hyperglycemia can be present but is not the most significant finding. D: Hypernatremia is not a typical feature of adrenal crisis.