ATI RN
nclex practice questions 2023 health assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is assessing the skin of a patient who has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which of the following will the nurse most likely observe?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Erythematous scaly patch with sharp margins in the sacral area. In patients with AIDS, this presentation is most likely indicative of a common opportunistic infection called tinea corporis. This fungal infection often presents as erythematous scaly patches with well-defined borders. The location in the sacral area is also common due to the warm and moist environment. Choice A, tinea capitis, is a fungal infection of the scalp and is not typically associated with AIDS. Choice B describes a presentation more indicative of a condition like seborrheic dermatitis rather than an AIDS-related skin manifestation. Choice D describes a presentation more typical of tinea corporis, which is not commonly seen in the axilla region in patients with AIDS.
Question 2 of 9
During an examination of a female patient, the nurse observes lymphadenopathy and suspects an acute infection. Acutely infected lymph nodes would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: clumped. Acutely infected lymph nodes typically present as clumped due to inflammation and enlargement of multiple nodes in close proximity. This clustering is a result of the immune response to the infection. Choice B: unilateral is incorrect as lymphadenopathy in acute infection can be unilateral or bilateral. Choice C: firm but freely movable is incorrect as acutely infected lymph nodes are usually tender and may not be freely movable due to inflammation. Choice D: hard and nontender is incorrect as acutely infected lymph nodes are usually tender and may not be hard.
Question 3 of 9
During the assessment of a 26-year-old, she states,"I have a spot on my lip I think is cancer." The nurse notes the following: a cluster of clear vesicles with an erythematous base around them located at the lip"“ skin border. The patient mentions that she just returned from Hawaii. What would be the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the presentation of clear vesicles with an erythematous base around them at the lip-skin border is characteristic of herpes simplex virus 1 infection, commonly known as cold sores. Given the patient's recent travel to Hawaii, exposure to the virus is likely. This infection is self-limiting and typically heals in 4 to 10 days without the need for specific treatment. Choice A is incorrect because seeing a skin specialist may not be necessary for a self-limiting viral infection. Choice B is incorrect as a biopsy is not typically indicated for a clear clinical diagnosis of herpes simplex virus infection. Choice D is incorrect as riboflavin deficiency does not present with clear vesicles and erythema at the lip-skin border.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following physiological changes is responsible for presbyopia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, loss of lens elasticity. Presbyopia is the age-related loss of near vision due to the lens becoming less flexible, making it harder to focus on close objects. With aging, the lens loses its ability to change shape, affecting near vision. Other choices are incorrect because presbyopia is primarily related to changes in the lens, not the cornea (A), adaptation to darkness (C), or distance vision abilities (D).
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is an expected normal finding in the diagnostic positions test?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A slight amount of lid lag when moving the eyes from a superior position to an inferior position. In the diagnostic positions test, when the eyes move from an extreme superior position to an inferior position, a slight amount of lid lag is expected due to the normal anatomical structure and mechanics of the eye muscles and eyelids. This lag is a normal finding and not indicative of any underlying pathology. Rationale: A: Convergence of vision in both eyes is not a normal finding in the diagnostic positions test as convergence refers to the inward movement of both eyes towards each other to maintain single binocular vision. B: Parallel movement of both eyes is not a specific finding in the diagnostic positions test. The test is designed to assess the movement of the eyes in different directions. C: Nystagmus in extreme superior gaze is not a normal finding and indicates an abnormality in eye movement coordination, not an expected finding in the diagnostic positions test.
Question 6 of 9
The primary purpose of the ciliated mucous membrane in the nose is to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: filter out dust and bacteria. The ciliated mucous membrane in the nose traps dust and bacteria present in the inhaled air through the mucus layer and then moves them towards the throat to be swallowed or expelled. This helps in protecting the respiratory system from harmful particles. Choice A is incorrect as the warming of inhaled air is primarily done by the nasal passages and sinuses, not the ciliated mucous membrane. Choice C is incorrect because the filtering of coarse particles is also done by the nasal hairs and the mucous membrane working together, not just the ciliated mucous membrane alone. Choice D is incorrect as the movement of air through the nares is mainly controlled by the size of the nostrils and is not the primary function of the ciliated mucous membrane.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is doing an oral assessment on a 40-year-old patient of African descent and notes the presence of a 1-cm, nontender, greyish-white lesion on the left buccal mucosa. Which of the following about this lesion is true?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Leukoedema is a common benign condition in individuals of African descent. 2. Leukoedema presents as greyish-white lesions on the buccal mucosa. 3. It is typically asymptomatic and does not require treatment. 4. Leukoedema is not associated with any serious health concerns. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Hyperpigmentation would present as dark patches, not greyish-white lesions. C. Torus palatinus is a bony growth on the hard palate, not a mucosal lesion. D. Cancerous lesions typically have different characteristics and would require further investigation.
Question 8 of 9
During ocular examinations, the nurse keeps in mind that movement of the extraocular muscles is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the movement of extraocular muscles is primarily controlled by cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. CN III controls most of the eye movements, CN IV controls the superior oblique muscle, and CN VI controls the lateral rectus muscle. These nerves work together to coordinate eye movements in all directions. Choices A and B are incorrect because age or cataracts do not directly impact the stimulation of extraocular muscles. Choice C is incorrect as CNs I and II are not involved in controlling extraocular muscle movement.
Question 9 of 9
The muscles in the neck that are innervated by CN XI are the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: sternomastoid and trapezius. CN XI, also known as the spinal accessory nerve, innervates the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles. The sternomastoid muscle is responsible for neck rotation and flexion, while the trapezius muscle is responsible for shoulder movement and stability. The other choices are incorrect because the omohyoid and sternomandibular muscles are not innervated by CN XI. The spinal accessory nerve does not innervate the omohyoid muscle, and the sternomandibular muscle is not a recognized muscle in the neck. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.