The nurse is assessing the laboratory values for a patient with chronic heart failure before administering furosemide. Which of the following values would cause the nurse to withhold this drug and notify the primary care provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion. A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmias, especially in patients with chronic heart failure. Therefore, if the patient's potassium level is already low, administering furosemide can further decrease it and potentially lead to serious complications. Choice B: Digoxin level of 0.7 ng/mL is not directly related to the administration of furosemide. While digoxin toxicity can occur with low potassium levels, the focus here is on the impact of furosemide on potassium levels. Choice C: Calcium level of 5 mg/dL is not a direct contraindication for administering furosemide. Low calcium levels can affect cardiac function, but in this case, potassium level is more crucial. Choice D: Magnesium level of

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia can be a side effect of digoxin. Digoxin is a cardiac medication that can lead to tachycardia as a side effect due to its impact on the heart's electrical activity. Anorexia (A), constipation (C), and urinary retention (D) are not commonly associated with digoxin use. Tachycardia is the most relevant side effect to address when discussing digoxin with a client, as it can indicate potential toxicity and the need for medical intervention.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: It decreases heart rate and the work of the heart. Beta blockers work by blocking the action of adrenaline on beta receptors in the heart, leading to a decrease in heart rate and the force of contraction. This helps the heart by reducing its workload and oxygen demand, making it more efficient. Incorrect choices: A: It increases preload - This is incorrect because beta blockers actually reduce preload by decreasing heart rate and myocardial contractility. C: It increases blood pressure - Beta blockers typically lower blood pressure by reducing heart rate and contractility. D: It can be used for ventricular tachycardia - While beta blockers can be used to manage certain types of tachycardias, they are not the first-line treatment for ventricular tachycardia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Procainamide, a class IA anti-arrhythmic agent. Procainamide is known for its sodium channel blocking properties, which helps to stabilize cell membranes and prevent abnormal electrical activity in the heart. Metoprolol (A) is a beta-blocker, Disopyramide (B) is a class IA anti-arrhythmic agent but not commonly used, and Morcizine (D) is a class IC anti-arrhythmic agent. Therefore, C is the correct choice for a class IA anti-arrhythmic agent.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypertension. ACE inhibitors are commonly used to treat hypertension by dilating blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. This drug works by blocking the production of angiotensin II, a hormone that constricts blood vessels. Therefore, it is an effective treatment for managing high blood pressure. Choice A (Frequent PVCs) and choice B (Atrial flutter) are incorrect because ACE inhibitors are not typically used to treat these conditions. Choice D (Diabetic nephropathy) is also incorrect as while ACE inhibitors are sometimes used to manage diabetic nephropathy due to their ability to protect the kidneys, it is not the primary reason for prescribing this medication in most cases.