The nurse is assessing the hearing of a 7-month-old. What would be the expected response to clapping of hands?

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Question 1 of 9

The nurse is assessing the hearing of a 7-month-old. What would be the expected response to clapping of hands?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because at 7 months, infants typically have developed the ability to localize sounds. When clapping hands, the expected response is for the infant to turn their head towards the sound source, indicating their ability to detect and localize the sound. This behavior reflects the normal auditory development at this age. Choice B is incorrect because by 7 months, infants should show some response to noise, such as turning their head or showing some interest. Choice C is incorrect as the startle and acoustic blink reflex typically occur in response to sudden loud noises, but at 7 months, the infant should also be able to localize the source of the sound. Choice D is incorrect as stopping all movement and appearing to listen is not a typical response expected from a 7-month-old when hearing a sound. Infants at this age are more likely to actively turn towards the sound source to investigate.

Question 2 of 9

During the assessment of an infant, the nurse notes that the fontanelles are depressed and sunken. Which condition does the nurse suspect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dehydration. Depressed and sunken fontanelles in an infant indicate dehydration due to decreased fluid volume. Dehydration causes a decrease in tissue turgor, leading to the fontanelles appearing sunken. Rickets (A) is a condition characterized by weak or soft bones due to vitamin D deficiency. Mental retardation (C) is a developmental disorder, not related to fontanelle appearance. Increased intracranial pressure (D) would cause bulging fontanelles, not depressed fontanelles. Therefore, the most likely condition in this case is dehydration.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following is an example of a symptom?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain. A symptom is a subjective indication of a condition experienced by the patient. Chest pain is a subjective sensation that a patient reports, making it a symptom. Clammy skin, serum potassium level, and temperature are all objective signs or measurements, not subjective experiences reported by the patient. Symptoms are what the patient feels or experiences, while signs are objective findings that can be measured or observed by healthcare providers.

Question 4 of 9

A patient tells the nurse that she has been experiencing abdominal pain for the past week. Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates active listening and empathy by directly addressing the patient's concern. By asking the patient to point to where it hurts, the nurse can gather specific information to assess the location and severity of the pain. This helps in determining potential causes and appropriate interventions. Choice B is incorrect as it delays addressing the patient's immediate concern. Choice C focuses on dietary history, which may not be relevant to the current pain complaint. Choice D is unrelated to the current issue and does not address the patient's pain directly.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor the patient for signs of which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial as warfarin increases the risk of bleeding events. Signs of bleeding may include easy bruising, nosebleeds, blood in urine or stool. Hypertension (B), hyperglycemia (C), and hypokalemia (D) are not direct effects of warfarin. Monitoring for these conditions may be important for other medications or conditions, but they are not the primary concern when a patient is prescribed warfarin.

Question 6 of 9

A patient asks the nurse, "Why do I have to stop smoking before my surgery?" What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Smoking increases the risk of complications during surgery." Smoking constricts blood vessels, reduces oxygen levels, and impairs the body's ability to heal. This can lead to increased risks of infections, delayed wound healing, and other complications during and after surgery. Choice B is vague and does not address the specific risks associated with smoking. Choice C is too general and does not emphasize the immediate risks related to surgery. Choice D implies a benefit after surgery rather than focusing on the risks associated with smoking before surgery.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about self-management. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because using the inhaler every time the patient feels short of breath, even without a flare-up, is not the recommended practice for managing COPD. Inhalers should be used as prescribed by the healthcare provider or only during exacerbations. Here's the rationale: 1. Using the inhaler excessively can lead to overuse of medication and potential side effects. 2. It is important for patients to differentiate between regular management and acute exacerbations. 3. Monitoring oxygen levels (choice D) is essential for COPD management. 4. Quitting smoking (choice A) and deep breathing exercises (choice B) are positive self-management strategies for COPD.

Question 8 of 9

The nurse suspects that a patient has hyperthyroidism, and laboratory data also indicate that the patient's T and T hormone levels are elevated. Which of the following would the nurse most likely find on 4 3 examination?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A (Tachycardia) is correct: 1. Hyperthyroidism leads to increased production of thyroid hormones. 2. Thyroid hormones can increase metabolic rate and heart rate. 3. Tachycardia is a common symptom of hyperthyroidism due to increased metabolic demand. 4. Therefore, the nurse would most likely find tachycardia on examination in a patient with hyperthyroidism. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Constipation - Constipation is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. C: Rapid dyspnea - Dyspnea (shortness of breath) is not a typical symptom of hyperthyroidism. D: Atrophied, nodular thyroid - Hyperthyroidism often presents with an enlarged, not atrophied, thyroid gland due to overactivity. Nodules may be present in conditions like thyroid cancer, but not specific to hyper

Question 9 of 9

In using the ophthalmoscope to assess a patient's eyes, the nurse notes a red glow in the patient's pupils. On the basis of this finding, the nurse would:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. Red glow in pupils indicates a normal reflection off the inner retina known as the red reflex. 2. The red reflex helps to visualize the internal structures of the eye, including the retina. 3. This finding is expected during an ophthalmoscopic examination. 4. No abnormality is suggested by the presence of a red glow in the pupils. Summary of Other Choices: A: Incorrect. Red glow does not indicate an opacity in the lens or cornea. B: Incorrect. Checking the light source is unnecessary as red glow is a normal finding. D: Incorrect. Referral is not needed as red reflex is a normal part of an ophthalmoscopic exam.

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