ATI RN
Hematological System Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is assessing an older client for any potential hematologic health problem. Which assessment finding is the most significant and would be reported to the primary health care provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, multiple petechiae and large bruises. This finding is indicative of potential hematologic health problems such as thrombocytopenia or clotting disorders, which can be serious and require immediate medical attention. Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin, and large bruises suggest abnormal bleeding. Poor skin turgor (choice A) is more indicative of dehydration. Dry, flaky skin (choice C) may be related to skin conditions or inadequate hydration. Decreased body hair distribution (choice D) could be related to hormonal imbalances or aging, but it is not as concerning as signs of abnormal bleeding.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is not associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. 2. Neurologic deficits are common due to microvascular thrombi affecting the brain. 3. Thrombosis is a hallmark feature of TTP, with platelet aggregation leading to microthrombi formation. 4. Therefore, choice A is not associated with TTP because thrombosis is a defining feature.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is not a good prognostic factor in patient with acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Immunophenotype of mature B cell is not a good prognostic factor in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) because it indicates a more aggressive subtype. B: Gender being female is a good prognostic factor in ALL as females generally have better outcomes. C: Chromosomal number hyperploidy is a good prognostic factor as it is associated with a favorable prognosis. D: Age 4 to 10 years old is also a good prognostic factor as children in this age group tend to have better outcomes in ALL.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following subtypes of Hodgkin's lymphoma is common in young women and has good prognosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nodular sclerosis subtype of Hodgkin's lymphoma. It is common in young women due to its peak incidence in the 20s-30s. This subtype has a good prognosis as it is the most indolent with a high cure rate. It is characterized by fibrotic bands dividing the lymph node into nodules, containing lacunar (Reed-Sternberg) cells. The other choices (B: Mixed cellularity, C: Lymphocyte predominance, D: Lymphocyte depletion) are incorrect: B: Mixed cellularity is more common in older adults and has a less favorable prognosis. C: Lymphocyte predominance is rare and has a favorable prognosis, but it is more common in young males, not young women. D: Lymphocyte depletion is rare, aggressive, and associated with a poor prognosis, not common in young women.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is presented with pallor, fatigue and dyspnea. Physical examination shows koilonychias and angular cheilitis. Which of the following is not expected in the laboratory finding of this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The patient presents with symptoms of iron deficiency anemia. Step 2: Koilonychias and angular cheilitis are characteristic of iron deficiency anemia. Step 3: Low total iron binding capacity (TIBC) is expected in iron deficiency anemia due to decreased iron stores. Step 4: High serum transferrin and low iron:TIBC ratio are also expected in iron deficiency anemia. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is A, as low TIBC is expected in iron deficiency anemia. Summary: B: High serum transferrin and C: Low iron:TIBC ratio are expected in iron deficiency anemia. D: Low serum ferritin is expected in iron deficiency anemia as it is a marker of decreased iron stores.