The nurse is assessing a postoperative patient with a history of obstructive sleep apnea for airway obstruction. Which assessment finding will best alert the nurse to this complication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drop in pulse oximetry readings. In a postoperative patient with a history of obstructive sleep apnea, airway obstruction can lead to decreased oxygen levels, indicated by a drop in pulse oximetry readings. This is the best assessment finding to alert the nurse to this complication because it directly reflects the patient's oxygenation status. Moaning with reports of pain (B) and shallow respirations (C) may indicate pain or respiratory distress but do not specifically point towards airway obstruction. Disorientation (D) can be a sign of various issues, not specifically related to airway obstruction.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Intubate the patient using the blind orotracheal intubation technique to maintain in-line mobilization of the spine, then assist ventilation. In this scenario, the patient is entrapped with limited access and expected extrication time of 20 minutes. Given the patient's unconsciousness, unresponsiveness, weak carotid pulse, and slow, shallow breathing, securing the airway is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Intubating the patient using the blind orotracheal technique allows for maintaining in-line mobilization of the spine, reducing the risk of further spinal injury during the extrication process. This approach provides a more definitive airway management compared to nasal airway insertion or bag-valve mask ventilation. Nasotracheal intubation (choice B) may not be feasible due to limited access and potential for further injury. Using a King LTD (choice D) is not recommended in this situation as it does not provide the same

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A P-R interval greater than five small boxes (0.20 seconds) wide on the electrocardiogram tracing. In first-degree AV block, there is a delay in conduction from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in a prolonged P-R interval on the EKG. This delay is represented by a P-R interval greater than 0.20 seconds. This finding is characteristic of first-degree AV block. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: A: There are more than one P wave for each QRS complex - This describes a condition called atrial fibrillation, where multiple P waves are present but not associated with QRS complexes. C: The P-R intervals become progressively longer until a QRS complex is dropped altogether - This describes a Mobitz Type II second-degree AV block, where there is a sudden block of conduction without a progressive increase in P-R intervals. D: The P waves are present but

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: To help lower dangerous potassium levels. High-dose nebulized albuterol is recommended for hyperkalemic patients because it activates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, leading to an intracellular shift of potassium, thereby decreasing serum potassium levels. Albuterol does not directly address ventilatory status (choice A), metabolic acidosis (choice B), or increase available calcium at the cellular level (choice C). It is essential to focus on treating the underlying cause of hyperkalemia, which is the dangerously high potassium levels in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Milfeasance. Negligence is divided into three categories: malfeasance (performing an act that is wrongful), misfeasance (performing a lawful act in a wrongful manner), and nonfeasance (failing to perform a required duty). "Milfeasance" is not a recognized term in negligence law and does not fit into any of the established categories. Therefore, it is not a valid category of negligence. Malfeasance, misfeasance, and nonfeasance are the only recognized categories in negligence law.