The nurse is assessing a patient with multiple sclerosis who is demonstrating involuntary, rhythmic eye movements. What term will the nurse use when documenting these eye movements?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct term for the involuntary, rhythmic eye movements seen in the patient with multiple sclerosis is nystagmus. Nystagmus is a condition characterized by repetitive, uncontrolled eye movements that can be horizontal, vertical, or rotary. In multiple sclerosis, nystagmus can occur due to damage to the nerves that control eye movement. Vertigo (choice A) is a sensation of spinning or dizziness, not related to eye movements. Tinnitus (choice B) is a perception of noise or ringing in the ears. Astigmatism (choice D) is a refractive error of the eye, not related to involuntary eye movements.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gay, bisexual, and other men who have sex with men. This group currently has the highest risk of contracting HIV due to various factors such as higher prevalence within this population, risky sexual behaviors, and limited access to healthcare services. Men who have sex with men have been disproportionately affected by HIV/AIDS since the beginning of the epidemic. Recreational drug users and blood transfusion recipients have lower overall risk compared to men who have sex with men. Health care providers, although at risk of occupational exposure, have lower risk compared to the other groups mentioned.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the patient for fever, rash, and difficulty breathing. The rationale is as follows: 1. Renal calculus obstruction can lead to complications such as infection, so monitoring for fever is crucial. 2. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the procedure. 3. Difficulty breathing may signal a severe reaction or complications. Summary: A: Turning the patient on the right side does not directly address the urgent need to monitor for potential complications. B: While fluid intake is important, it is not the immediate priority when the patient is at risk of developing complications. D: Administering narcotic medications may be necessary for pain relief but does not address the potential emergent issues related to the obstruction.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is the most important risk factor for cervical cancer as it is responsible for almost all cases. Step 1: HPV infection can lead to changes in cervical cells, increasing the risk of cancer. Step 2: Early detection and vaccination against HPV can prevent cervical cancer. Step 3: Other factors like late childbearing, postmenopausal bleeding, and tobacco use may be associated with increased risk but are not as directly linked to cervical cancer development.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: TPN administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter. TPN provides comprehensive nutrition intravenously, bypassing the GI tract, which is important for patients unable to tolerate oral intake. A peripherally inserted central catheter allows for long-term TPN administration. A: Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV is not ideal for long-term nutrition as it may not provide complete nutrition. C: Insertion of an NG tube may not be feasible due to the tumor location and the patient's inability to tolerate oral intake. D: Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration alone may lead to malnutrition over time as it does not provide adequate nutrition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decrease in dysuria. Antimuscarinic medications target muscarinic receptors, which are involved in the contraction of smooth muscle in the bladder. Dysuria, or painful urination, is a common symptom of overactive bladder or bladder spasms, which can be relieved by antimuscarinics. Choices B, C, and D are related to other urinary symptoms such as urgency, frequency, and prostate size, respectively, which are not directly targeted by antimuscarinics. Therefore, only a decrease in dysuria indicates therapeutic effects of the medication.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because patients with lower health literacy, such as those with a high-school diploma, may struggle to understand complex health information. The nurse should assess this patient closely to ensure they comprehend and can follow instructions. Patients with higher education levels (college degree) may have better health literacy skills. Age alone (35 or 68 years old) does not determine health literacy level. It is essential to focus on the patient's educational background to assess their health literacy effectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Care of the cervical collar Rationale: 1. Care of the cervical collar is essential post-cervical diskectomy to ensure proper immobilization and support. 2. Proper care prevents complications and promotes healing. 3. It is a crucial aspect of discharge education to prevent injury and promote recovery. Summary of other choices: B: Technique for performing neck ROM exercises - Important for rehabilitation but not directly related to discharge education post-cervical diskectomy. C: Home assessment of ABGs - Irrelevant to post-cervical diskectomy discharge education. D: Techniques for restoring nerve function - Important for recovery but not a primary focus of discharge education.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the cognitive effects of aging can mimic symptoms of brain tumors in older adults, leading to misdiagnosis or delayed diagnosis. Aging can also affect the presentation, progression, and treatment outcomes of brain tumors. Option B is incorrect as brain tumors in older adults can indeed produce focal effects. Option C is incorrect as not all older adults have numerous benign brain tumors, and this is not a factor affecting the diagnosis and treatment of brain tumors in this case. Option D is incorrect as age alone does not preclude treatment for brain tumors.