ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with suspected placenta previa. Which finding supports this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Painless, bright red bleeding. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding due to the placenta covering the cervical os. Bright red blood indicates fresh bleeding from the lower uterus. This finding supports the diagnosis as it aligns with the classic presentation of placenta previa. A: Painful, bright red bleeding is not characteristic of placenta previa, as the bleeding is usually painless. C: A hard, rigid abdomen is more indicative of a uterine rupture or abruption, not placenta previa. D: Decreased fetal movements are not directly associated with placenta previa; this finding may suggest fetal distress but is not specific to this condition.
Question 2 of 5
A client at 28 weeks' gestation is undergoing a glucose tolerance test. What is the purpose of this test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To screen for gestational diabetes. The glucose tolerance test during pregnancy helps to identify women at risk for developing gestational diabetes, a condition that can lead to complications for both the mother and baby. By measuring blood sugar levels after consuming a glucose solution, healthcare providers can assess how the body processes sugar during pregnancy. This test is specifically designed to detect abnormalities in glucose metabolism during pregnancy. Choice A: To detect anemia - Anemia is not typically identified through a glucose tolerance test. Anemia is usually diagnosed through a blood test that measures hemoglobin levels. Choice C: To assess fetal growth - Fetal growth is usually monitored through ultrasound scans and measurements, not through a glucose tolerance test. Choice D: To evaluate placental function - Placental function is evaluated through other tests like Doppler ultrasound, not through a glucose tolerance test.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is reviewing a prenatal client’s record. Which history finding increases the risk for preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: First pregnancy. Preeclampsia is more common in first pregnancies due to the body's lack of adaptation to the pregnancy. In subsequent pregnancies, the body has already gone through the changes necessary for pregnancy, reducing the risk. Advanced maternal age (A) and history of gestational diabetes (B) are risk factors for other pregnancy complications but not specifically preeclampsia. History of anemia (D) is not directly linked to an increased risk of preeclampsia.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is performing a nonstress test. What result indicates a reactive test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because two accelerations in 20 minutes are indicative of a reactive nonstress test. This pattern suggests that the fetal heart rate is reacting appropriately to fetal movement, indicating good oxygenation and neurologic integrity. Choice A is incorrect as fetal movements are essential for the test. Choice C is incorrect as a baseline heart rate of 170 bpm is considered high. Choice D is incorrect as variable decelerations are concerning for fetal distress.
Question 5 of 5
A client at 38 weeks' gestation is admitted for decreased fetal movement. What diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Biophysical profile (BPP). At 38 weeks' gestation with decreased fetal movement, BPP is used to assess fetal well-being by evaluating fetal heart rate, fetal movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and sometimes placental function. It provides immediate information on fetal status and is non-invasive. Amniocentesis (A) is not indicated for decreased fetal movement. Contraction stress test (C) is contraindicated due to the risk of inducing contractions in a term pregnancy. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (D) is a screening test for neural tube defects and is not relevant in this situation.