ATI RN
Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client with multiple myeloma. The nurse should keep in mind that clients with multiple myeloma are at risk for:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pathologic bone fractures. In multiple myeloma, there is an increase in osteoclast activity leading to bone destruction, making patients prone to pathologic fractures. Chronic liver failure (A), acute heart failure (C), and hypoxemia (D) are not directly associated with multiple myeloma pathophysiology. This highlights the importance of understanding the disease process to determine the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. The nurse should highest priority to which intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because administering antiemetic medications like metoclopramide and dexamethasone helps control nausea and vomiting post-chemotherapy. Metoclopramide acts on the gut to reduce nausea, while dexamethasone decreases inflammation and suppresses the vomiting reflex. Choice A focuses on dietary interventions but does not address the physiological cause of nausea. Choice B with breathing exercises may help some clients but does not directly address the nausea and vomiting. Choice D is incorrect as withholding fluids can lead to dehydration, which is not recommended after chemotherapy.
Question 3 of 9
The staff nurse in a regional hospital is aware that a dose of parenteral ampicillin must be administered within how many hours after it has been mixed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (4 hours) because parenteral ampicillin should be administered within 1 hour of mixing. This is crucial to ensure efficacy and prevent bacterial growth in the solution. Choice A (1 hour) is incorrect because it does not allow enough time for administration after mixing. Choice C (2 hours) is also incorrect as it exceeds the recommended time limit. Choice D (8 hours) is incorrect as it exceeds the safe window for administration post-mixing, increasing the risk of bacterial contamination and reduced effectiveness. Thus, the optimal timeframe for administering parenteral ampicillin after mixing is within 4 hours to maintain its therapeutic benefits.
Question 4 of 9
A 34 year old client is diagnosed with AIDS. His pharmacologic management includes zidovudine (AZT). During a home visit, the client states, “I don’t understand how this medication works. Will it stop the infection?” What is the nurse’s best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should explain that zidovudine (AZT) works by blocking reverse transcriptase, the enzyme necessary for HIV replication. This is the key mechanism of action for AZT in managing HIV. Choice A is incorrect because it provides a partial truth - it does slow the disease process but does not provide the mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as it provides incorrect information that there are no medications to stop or cure HIV, which is not true. Choice D is incorrect as it provides misleading information about the drug becoming immune to HIV, which is not the primary concern in this context.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise the collaborative problem part of the diagnostic statement because "Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate" is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. Collaborative problems involve issues that require both nursing and medical interventions, whereas nursing diagnoses focus on the nurse's role in addressing the patient's health issues. Therefore, the nurse should revise the collaborative problem part to accurately reflect the collaborative aspect of the patient's care. Etiology (A), nursing diagnosis (B), and defining characteristic (D) are not the parts of the diagnostic statement that need revision in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A client is brought to the emergency department in an unconscious condition. The client’s wife hands over the previous medical files and points out that the client had suddenly fallen unconscious after trying to get out of bed. Which of the following is a primary source of information?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Client’s wife. She is the primary source of information as she witnessed the event firsthand and provided relevant details. In this scenario, the wife's account of the event is crucial in understanding the sequence of events leading to the client's unconscious condition. Medical documents (B), test results (C), and assessment data (D) are all secondary sources of information that may provide additional data but do not have the same level of immediacy or firsthand knowledge as the client's wife. In an emergency situation, information from a reliable eyewitness is often the most valuable initial source for healthcare providers to make critical decisions.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following nursing interventions is correctly categorized as collaborative?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because monitoring a client's response to an intervention initiated by another healthcare professional is a collaborative nursing intervention. This involves working together with other healthcare team members to assess the client's progress and adjust care as needed. It promotes continuity of care and ensures that the client's needs are met effectively. A: Administering medications is typically an independent nursing intervention. B: Ordering a low-sodium diet is within the scope of a nurse's independent practice. C: Providing health education is often considered an independent nursing intervention unless it involves collaboration with other team members. In summary, choice D is the correct answer as it exemplifies collaborative care within a healthcare team.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. In the given diagnostic statement, "Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate," the nurse needs to revise the mention of collaborative problem. The collaborative problem is a health issue that requires the expertise of multiple healthcare providers, whereas the statement provided focuses on a nursing diagnosis related to physical mobility impairment. The etiology (cause), nursing diagnosis, and defining characteristic are all relevant to the nursing diagnostic statement and do not need revision. The collaborative problem aspect is not appropriate in this context as it does not fit the criteria for a collaborative problem.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is the most numerous type of white blood cell (WBC)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutrophil. Neutrophils are the most numerous type of WBC, typically comprising 50-70% of total WBC count. They are key players in the body's immune response, phagocytizing pathogens. Basophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes are less numerous than neutrophils. Basophils are involved in allergic reactions, eosinophils combat parasitic infections, and lymphocytes play a critical role in adaptive immunity. However, in terms of sheer numbers, neutrophils outnumber the other types of WBC.