ATI RN
Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client with multiple myeloma. The nurse should keep in mind that clients with multiple myeloma are at risk for:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pathologic bone fractures. In multiple myeloma, there is an increase in osteoclast activity leading to bone destruction, making patients prone to pathologic fractures. Chronic liver failure (A), acute heart failure (C), and hypoxemia (D) are not directly associated with multiple myeloma pathophysiology. This highlights the importance of understanding the disease process to determine the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient is apprehensive about discharge. The rationale is that the patient's fear of going home and being alone indicates anxiety about leaving the hospital setting. This subjective data suggests that the patient may not feel ready for discharge despite stable vital signs and nearly healed incision. Choices A and B are incorrect because they assume the patient's readiness for self-care without considering emotional factors. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence provided that the surgery was unsuccessful.
Question 3 of 9
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse can infer that the patient is apprehensive about discharge based on the subjective data of the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone. This indicates the patient may not feel ready to leave the hospital setting. Choice A is incorrect because the patient's fear of going home suggests they may not be comfortable performing dressing changes alone. Choice B is incorrect because there is no information provided to support that the patient can begin retaking all previous medications. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication that the fear of going home is related to the success of the surgery.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse needs to assess a client who is undergoing urinary diversion. Which of the ff assessment is essential for the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client's medical history of allergy to iodine or seafood is crucial for urinary diversion assessment to prevent potential adverse reactions during procedures involving contrast media or seafood-based medications. It is essential to ensure the client's safety and avoid any allergic reactions. Choice A is incorrect because assessing sexual function is not directly related to urinary diversion assessment. Choice C is also incorrect as urinary diversion does not typically affect nervous control. Choice D is irrelevant to the assessment of a client undergoing urinary diversion.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is admitted with symptoms of a recent weight gain, 3+ pitting edema of his feet, distended neck veins, and crackles in his lungs. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for this patient’s plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Excess fluid volume. This patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of fluid overload, such as weight gain, pitting edema, distended neck veins, and crackles in the lungs. These indicate an excess of fluid in the body. Nursing care for this patient should focus on managing fluid balance. A: Deficient fluid volume is incorrect because the patient is showing signs of fluid overload, not deficit. B: Imbalanced nutrition more than body requirements is incorrect as the symptoms described are related to fluid volume, not nutrition intake. D: Noncompliance is irrelevant to the patient's current symptoms and does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload.
Question 6 of 9
A client with thrombocytopenia secondary to leukemia develops epistaxis. The nurse should instruct the client to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sit upright, leaning slightly forward. This position helps to minimize blood flow to the head, reducing the risk of increased bleeding. It also prevents blood from flowing down the throat, reducing the risk of aspiration. A: Lying supine with the neck extended can increase pressure on the blood vessels in the head, potentially worsening the epistaxis. C: Blowing the nose and putting lateral pressure can disrupt any clots that may have formed and increase bleeding. D: Holding the nose while bending forward at the waist can lead to blood flowing down the throat and increase the risk of aspiration.
Question 7 of 9
To provide safe care for Mrs. Zeno, it is important for the nurse to check the bedside for the presence of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A hypothermia blanket. This is important because hypothermia can lead to complications such as shivering, increased risk of infection, and altered drug metabolism. Checking for the hypothermia blanket ensures Mrs. Zeno's temperature is regulated, promoting safety. A: A tracheostomy set is not directly related to Mrs. Zeno's immediate safety unless she has a tracheostomy in place. C: An intravenous set-up is important for administering medications, fluids, or blood products, but it is not directly related to Mrs. Zeno's safety at the bedside. D: A syringe and edrophonium HCl(Tensilon) is specific to a diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis, which may not be relevant to Mrs. Zeno's current condition or safety.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following nursing interventions is correctly categorized as collaborative?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because monitoring a client's response to an intervention initiated by another healthcare professional is a collaborative nursing intervention. This involves working together with other healthcare team members to assess the client's progress and adjust care as needed. It promotes continuity of care and ensures that the client's needs are met effectively. A: Administering medications is typically an independent nursing intervention. B: Ordering a low-sodium diet is within the scope of a nurse's independent practice. C: Providing health education is often considered an independent nursing intervention unless it involves collaboration with other team members. In summary, choice D is the correct answer as it exemplifies collaborative care within a healthcare team.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise the collaborative problem part of the diagnostic statement because "Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate" is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. Collaborative problems involve issues that require both nursing and medical interventions, whereas nursing diagnoses focus on the nurse's role in addressing the patient's health issues. Therefore, the nurse should revise the collaborative problem part to accurately reflect the collaborative aspect of the patient's care. Etiology (A), nursing diagnosis (B), and defining characteristic (D) are not the parts of the diagnostic statement that need revision in this scenario.