ATI RN
Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with multiple myeloma. The nurse should keep in mind that clients with multiple myeloma are at risk for:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pathologic bone fractures. In multiple myeloma, there is an increase in osteoclast activity leading to bone destruction, making patients prone to pathologic fractures. Chronic liver failure (A), acute heart failure (C), and hypoxemia (D) are not directly associated with multiple myeloma pathophysiology. This highlights the importance of understanding the disease process to determine the correct answer.
Question 2 of 5
The Glasgow coma scale is used to .evaluate the level of consciousness in the neurological and neurological patients. The three assessment factors included in this scale are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses the level of consciousness by evaluating these three factors. Eye opening assesses the patient's ability to open their eyes spontaneously or in response to stimuli. Verbal response evaluates the patient's ability to speak or respond to verbal stimuli. Motor response assesses the patient's motor function by testing responses to commands or painful stimuli. Choice A is incorrect because it includes "response to pain" instead of "verbal response." Choice B is incorrect because it includes "verbal response" instead of "eye opening." Choice D is incorrect because it includes "eye opening" instead of "verbal response." In summary, the GCS evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor response to determine the level of consciousness in patients.
Question 3 of 5
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient is apprehensive about discharge. This is the correct answer because the patient's fear of going home and being alone indicates apprehension about discharge, which is a common feeling among patients transitioning from the hospital to home care. This subjective data suggests that the patient may need additional support and education prior to discharge to address their fears and concerns. A: The patient can now perform the dressing changes without help - This is incorrect because the patient's fear of going home and being alone does not necessarily indicate their ability to perform dressing changes independently. B: The patient can begin retaking all of the previous medications - This is incorrect as the fear expressed by the patient is related to being alone at home, not to medication management. D: The patient’s surgery was not successful - This is incorrect as there is no indication in the subjective data provided that the surgery was not successful.
Question 4 of 5
A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle rigidity and spasms. Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity and spasms as a side effect. The anesthesiologist should monitor the client for this adverse reaction. Muscle rigidity and spasms are common with ketamine administration and can affect the client's comfort and safety during the procedure. It is important for the nurse to promptly address any signs of muscle rigidity or spasms to prevent complications. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Hiccups - Ketamine can cause hiccups, but it is not the primary side effect to monitor for in this scenario. C: Extrapyramidal reactions - Ketamine does not typically cause extrapyramidal reactions. D: Respiratory depression - Ketamine is known for its minimal effect on respiratory depression compared to other anesthetics. Monitoring respiratory depression is still important, but not the primary concern with ketamine administration in this case.
Question 5 of 5
The client with epilepsy is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin (Dilantin) to control seizures. Results of a phenytoin blood level study reveal a level of 35 mcg/ml. Which of the following symptoms would be expected as a result of this laboratory result?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystagmus. A phenytoin blood level of 35 mcg/ml is above the therapeutic range (usually 10-20 mcg/ml). Excessive levels can lead to symptoms such as nystagmus, which is an involuntary eye movement commonly seen with phenytoin toxicity. Nystagmus is a known side effect of phenytoin overdose. Choices B and C are incorrect because a level of 35 mcg/ml is not within the normal therapeutic range, so symptoms would be expected. Choice D, Slurred speech, is not typically associated with phenytoin toxicity.
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