ATI RN
Endocrinology Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare professional is assessing a client with hypertension. Which client outcome is indicative of effective hypertension management?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'No indication of renal impairment.' Effective hypertension management aims to prevent complications such as renal impairment. Checking for signs of kidney issues, like abnormal renal function tests, is crucial in monitoring the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are not specific indicators of effective hypertension management. Pedal edema, sexual dysfunction, and a single blood pressure reading are important but do not solely determine the effectiveness of managing hypertension.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse teaches a client who is newly diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which instruction does the nurse include to minimize complications of this disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to talk to their provider about medications to help quit smoking. Smoking is a major risk factor for coronary artery disease, and quitting smoking can significantly reduce the risk of complications. Choice A is incorrect because exercise is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease, but should be started gradually and under guidance. Choice B is incorrect and inappropriate as it undermines the client's ability to take control of their health. Choice D is incorrect because while a balanced diet is important, specifically targeting carbohydrates alone may not be the most effective or healthy approach for managing coronary artery disease.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who has had surgery the previous day. The client tells the nurse, "Breathing in using this thing (incentive spirometer) is a ridiculous waste of time."? What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is, '"The spirometer will help your lungs expand."?' Incentive spirometry is used postoperatively to help prevent atelectasis by expanding the lungs and improving lung function. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of the spirometer is not to help cough effectively. Choice C is incorrect because while deep breathing with the spirometer can indirectly help prevent blood clots by improving lung function, its primary purpose is not to prevent blood clots directly. Choice D is incorrect because although using the spirometer can improve ventilation and oxygenation, its main purpose is not to improve blood flow in the lungs.
Question 4 of 5
The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.
Question 5 of 5
A client is hospitalized with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which clinical manifestation alerts the nurse to the possibility of a complication from the UTI?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fever and chills are systemic symptoms that may indicate a more severe infection or a complication of a urinary tract infection (UTI). While burning on urination and cloudy, dark urine are common symptoms of UTI, fever and chills suggest a more serious condition requiring immediate attention. Hematuria, which is blood in the urine, is also a concerning symptom but is more indicative of inflammation or infection rather than a complication.