ATI RN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client in the active stage of labor. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the client is beginning the second stage of labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because complete dilation of the cervix marks the transition from the first to the second stage of labor. This indicates that the client is ready to start pushing the baby out. Choice A is incorrect as ruptured membranes can occur in any stage of labor. Choice C is incorrect as clear vaginal fluid expulsion is not a specific indicator of the second stage. Choice D is incorrect as the urge to push can be experienced in the first stage as well.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client in the second stage of labor. What is the nurse's priority assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fetal descent and position. In the second stage of labor, the priority assessment is to monitor fetal descent and position to ensure the baby is progressing through the birth canal correctly. This assessment helps determine if interventions are needed to prevent complications such as fetal distress or prolonged labor. Assessing the frequency of contractions (A) and cervical dilation (B) are important but not the priority in the second stage. Intensity of contractions (D) is also important but not as crucial as monitoring fetal descent and position.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is educating a pregnant client about foods high in iron. Which food should be recommended?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spinach. 1. Spinach is high in iron, which is important for pregnant women to prevent anemia. 2. Milk (A) does not contain a significant amount of iron. 3. Chicken (B) is a good source of protein but not as high in iron as spinach. 4. Bananas (D) are rich in potassium but not iron, making them a less suitable choice for iron supplementation during pregnancy.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client in the third trimester reporting severe right upper quadrant pain and nausea. What condition should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: HELLP syndrome. In the third trimester, severe right upper quadrant pain and nausea can indicate HELLP syndrome, a serious pregnancy complication involving hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. The pain and nausea are due to liver and gallbladder involvement. Placenta previa typically presents with painless vaginal bleeding, not upper quadrant pain. Hyperemesis gravidarum causes severe nausea and vomiting but not specific upper quadrant pain. Abruptio placentae presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. What lab finding is most concerning?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased potassium. In hyperemesis gravidarum, excessive vomiting can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia. Potassium plays a crucial role in nerve and muscle function, so a low potassium level can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Elevated hematocrit (A) may indicate dehydration, but it is not as immediately concerning as potassium imbalance. Increased white blood cell count (C) may suggest infection but is not directly related to hyperemesis gravidarum. Low fasting blood glucose (D) can occur due to inadequate nutrient intake but is not the most concerning finding in this case.