ATI RN
Pharmacology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client and notes that he is receiving finasteride (Proscar). The client denies having any history of a significant prostate disorder. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, is used as Proscar for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and as Propecia for male pattern baldness, reducing dihydrotestosterone to promote hair growth. Without prostate issues, baldness is a likely reason for its use. Erectile dysfunction isn't treated by finasteride-it may cause it-making that irrelevant. Stomach ulcers and hypertension aren't linked to finasteride's androgen-targeted action. Asking about baldness probes a condition tied to its alternative use, clarifying the prescription's purpose and guiding the nurse's understanding of the client's therapy.
Question 2 of 5
An individual who has difficulty sleeping due to two final examinations scheduled for the same day later in the week most likely would be suffering from
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sleep trouble from exams is situational anxiety-transient, event-driven stress, per psychiatry. Social anxiety involves interaction fears, not events. OCD features obsessions/rituals, not sleep-specific. Performance anxiety ties to tasks, less sleep focus. Situational fits, triggered by circumstance.
Question 3 of 5
A 15-year-old female presents to her primary care physician complaining of runny nose and itchy eyes. She said that she first had these symptoms during the spring a few years ago, but each year, they have been bothering her more. You know there are multiple ways to interfere with the signaling that is causing her symptoms. Which of the following drugs would prevent the release of the main chemical mediator in her case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's symptoms-runny nose and itchy eyes during spring-suggest seasonal allergic rhinitis, where histamine is the main chemical mediator released from mast cells. Cromolyn sodium stabilizes mast cells, preventing histamine release, making it a prophylactic agent ideal for this scenario. Diphenhydramine is an H1 antihistamine that blocks histamine receptors after release, not preventing its release, so it's incorrect. Ranitidine is an H2 blocker, affecting gastric acid secretion, not allergic histamine pathways. Loratadine is another H1 antihistamine, also acting post-release. Theophylline (E) is a bronchodilator, irrelevant here. The question emphasizes preventing release, not blocking effects, so Cromolyn sodium stands out. Its mechanism directly addresses the root cause by stabilizing mast cells before allergen exposure triggers histamine release, offering a preventative rather than symptomatic approach, which aligns with the patient's recurring seasonal issue.
Question 4 of 5
A 38-year-old man who is obese complains of an extremely painful, swollen metatarsophalangeal joint of his left big toe. He presents to his primary care physician for evaluation. He has had two similar attacks in the past 4 years. The physician prescribes probenecid. Which of the following describes probenecid's mechanism of action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gout (recurrent toe pain) is treated with probenecid , which inhibits urate reabsorption in the proximal tubule, increasing uric acid excretion. Anti-inflammatory and leukocyte migration inhibition are colchicine's effects. Xanthine oxidase inhibition is allopurinol's. Upregulation (E) is wrong. Probenecid's uricosuric action reduces urate levels, preventing attacks.
Question 5 of 5
A 43-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis has not been treated with medication because of only having mild symptoms. Now, she has bilateral lower extremity weakness and urinary complaints. She has begun on mitoxantrone. Which of the following adverse effects must the treating physician be aware of?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.