The nurse is assessing a client and notes that he is receiving finasteride (Proscar). The client denies having any history of a significant prostate disorder. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask at this time?

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ATI RN Pharmacology Online Practice 2023 B Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client and notes that he is receiving finasteride (Proscar). The client denies having any history of a significant prostate disorder. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask at this time?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, is used as Proscar for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and as Propecia for male pattern baldness, reducing dihydrotestosterone to promote hair growth. Without prostate issues, baldness is a likely reason for its use. Erectile dysfunction isn't treated by finasteride-it may cause it-making that irrelevant. Stomach ulcers and hypertension aren't linked to finasteride's androgen-targeted action. Asking about baldness probes a condition tied to its alternative use, clarifying the prescription's purpose and guiding the nurse's understanding of the client's therapy.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) and notes bruising and petechiae on the patient's extremities. The nurse will request an order for which laboratory test?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bruising and petechiae on a patient's extremities are signs of potential thrombocytopenia, which is a decrease in platelet count. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant that works by interfering with the body's ability to use vitamin K to form blood clots. While the International normalized ratio (INR) is often used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, and PTT and aPTT may also be relevant in certain cases, the presence of bruising and petechiae suggest a potential issue with platelet levels. Therefore, checking the patient's platelet level with a laboratory test is appropriate in this situation to assess for thrombocytopenia.

Question 3 of 5

A busy patient with many responsibilities is to have a medication ordered to treat her hypertension. To increase compliance with drug therapy, what drug would be a good choice for this patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol would be the best choice because it has an extended-release form that only needs to be taken once a day, which should increase patient compliance. Acebutolol, atenolol, and bisoprolol do not come in extended-release forms. The nurse should consider the patient’s lifestyle and preferences when selecting antihypertensive medications to improve adherence.

Question 4 of 5

A 15-year-old female presents to her primary care physician complaining of runny nose and itchy eyes. She said that she first had these symptoms during the spring a few years ago, but each year, they have been bothering her more. You know there are multiple ways to interfere with the signaling that is causing her symptoms. Which of the following drugs would prevent the release of the main chemical mediator in her case?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient's symptoms-runny nose and itchy eyes during spring-suggest seasonal allergic rhinitis, where histamine is the main chemical mediator released from mast cells. Cromolyn sodium stabilizes mast cells, preventing histamine release, making it a prophylactic agent ideal for this scenario. Diphenhydramine is an H1 antihistamine that blocks histamine receptors after release, not preventing its release, so it's incorrect. Ranitidine is an H2 blocker, affecting gastric acid secretion, not allergic histamine pathways. Loratadine is another H1 antihistamine, also acting post-release. Theophylline (E) is a bronchodilator, irrelevant here. The question emphasizes preventing release, not blocking effects, so Cromolyn sodium stands out. Its mechanism directly addresses the root cause by stabilizing mast cells before allergen exposure triggers histamine release, offering a preventative rather than symptomatic approach, which aligns with the patient's recurring seasonal issue.

Question 5 of 5

What drug classification is Valproate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Valproate is a medication classified as an anticonvulsant, which means it is primarily used to treat seizures and epilepsy. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and helping to prevent abnormal brain signals that can lead to seizures. Valproate is also used as a mood stabilizer to treat bipolar disorder and is sometimes prescribed for migraine prevention. It is not classified as an antiarrhythmic, anticoagulant, or any other type of drug.

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