ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is assessing a child's weight and height during a clinic visit prior to starting school. The nurse plots the child's weight on the growth chart and notes that the child's weight is in the 95th percentile for the child's height. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Question the type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day. When a child's weight is in the 95th percentile for their height, it indicates possible overweight or obesity. To address this, the nurse should assess the child's dietary habits to identify any unhealthy eating patterns contributing to excess weight. By questioning the type and quantity of foods eaten, the nurse can provide appropriate guidance on nutrition and healthy eating habits. Summary: B: Encouraging additional snacks may further contribute to weight gain and is not recommended without knowing the current eating habits. C: Recommending a high intake of whole milk may increase calorie intake and potentially worsen the weight concern. D: Assessing for signs of poor nutrition, such as a pale appearance, is important but not directly addressing the weight concern in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
An advantage of peritoneal dialysis is that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a decreased risk of peritonitis exists. Peritoneal dialysis involves the insertion of a catheter into the peritoneal cavity, which can introduce bacteria and increase the risk of peritonitis. However, compared to hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis has a lower risk of bloodstream infections and vascular access-related complications, leading to a decreased risk of peritonitis. This advantage makes peritoneal dialysis a favorable option for some patients. Incorrect choices: A: peritoneal dialysis is actually less time-intensive compared to hemodialysis. C: biochemical disturbances are corrected more gradually in peritoneal dialysis. D: the danger of hemorrhage is not specific to peritoneal dialysis.
Question 3 of 9
A patient who has experienced blunt abdominal trauma during a motor vehicle collision is complaining of increasing abdominal pain. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abdominal ultrasonography. This is because ultrasonography is a non-invasive imaging technique that can quickly evaluate for internal injuries such as organ damage or bleeding in patients with blunt abdominal trauma. It is a rapid and effective diagnostic tool to assess the extent of injury and guide further management. Peritoneal lavage (A) is an invasive procedure used in trauma settings to detect intra-abdominal bleeding but is not typically used for teaching purposes. Nasogastric tube placement (C) is used for decompression and drainage in certain conditions but is not relevant for assessing abdominal trauma. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (D) is not typically used as the initial imaging modality for acute trauma due to time constraints and its limited availability in emergency settings.
Question 4 of 9
Following insertion of a central venous catheter, the nurse obtains a stat chest x-ray film to verify proper catheter placement. The radiologist reports to the nurse: “The tip of the catheter is located in the superior vena cava.” What is the best inter pretation of these results by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The distal tip of the catheter is in the appropriate position. Rationale: 1. The superior vena cava is a desirable location for a central venous catheter tip placement as it is close to the heart for rapid medication delivery. 2. Catheter tip in the superior vena cava allows for proper venous return and minimizes the risk of complications. 3. The nurse does not need to remove or adjust the catheter if the tip is in the superior vena cava. 4. Advancing the catheter into the pulmonary artery (option D) would be incorrect as it can lead to serious complications. Incorrect choices: A: Incorrect because placement in the superior vena cava is acceptable. B: Incorrect as placement in the superior vena cava does not increase the risk of ventricular dysrhythmias. D: Incorrect as advancing the catheter into the pulmonary artery is unnecessary and risky.
Question 5 of 9
A mode of pressure-targeted ventilation that provides posiatbivirbe. cporme/tsessut re to decrease the workload of spontaneous breathing through what action by the endotracheal tube?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure support ventilation. This mode delivers a set pressure to support each spontaneous breath, decreasing the workload of breathing. Pressure support ventilation assists the patient's inspiratory efforts without providing a set tidal volume like in volume-targeted ventilation. Continuous positive airway pressure (Choice A) maintains a constant level of positive pressure throughout the respiratory cycle but does not actively support spontaneous breathing efforts. Positive end-expiratory pressure (Choice B) maintains positive pressure at the end of expiration to prevent alveolar collapse but does not directly support spontaneous breathing. T-piece adapter (Choice D) is a weaning device that allows the patient to breathe spontaneously without ventilatory support.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient in the critical care unit whaobi,r ba.cfotemr/ tebset ing declared brain dead, is being managed by the OPO transplant coordinator. Thir ty minutes into the shift, assessment by the nurse includes a blood pressure 75/50 mm Hg, hear t rate 85 beats/min, and respiratory rate 12 breaths/min via assist/control ventilation. The oxygen saturation (SpO ) is 99% and 2 core temperature 93.8° F. Which primary care provider ord er should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Begin phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) for systolic BP < 90 mm Hg. The nurse should implement this order first because the patient's low blood pressure (75/50 mm Hg) indicates hypotension, which can lead to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Phenylephrine is a vasoconstrictor that can help increase the patient's blood pressure and improve perfusion. It is crucial to address hypotension promptly to prevent further complications. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining the patient's temperature above 96.8°F is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining a basic metabolic panel every 4 hours is not the immediate priority when the patient is experiencing hypotension. Choice D is incorrect as drawing arterial blood gas every 4 hours is not the most urgent intervention needed to address the patient's low blood pressure.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) following a massive heart attack. When assessing the patient, the nurse notices blood backing up into the IABP catheter. In which order should the nurse take the following actions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Ensuring the IABP console is turned off is crucial to prevent further complications and stop potential harm to the patient. 2. By turning off the IABP console, the nurse can halt the pumping action, allowing assessment of the situation without interference. 3. This action takes priority over other steps as it addresses the immediate issue of blood backing up into the IABP catheter. 4. Once the console is turned off, the nurse can proceed with assessing the patient's vital signs, notifying the healthcare provider, and obtaining supplies if needed. Summary of Incorrect Choices: - Option B: Assessing vital signs and orientation is important, but addressing the malfunction of the IABP takes precedence to prevent harm. - Option C: Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary, but first, the immediate issue of blood backing up into the catheter must be addressed. - Option D: Obtaining supplies for a new catheter is premature without first addressing
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following factors predispose the critically ill patient to pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inability to communicate. Critically ill patients often experience pain and anxiety due to their inability to effectively communicate their needs and discomfort. This can lead to unaddressed pain and increased anxiety levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while invasive procedures, monitoring devices, and preexisting conditions can contribute to pain and anxiety in critically ill patients, they are not factors that directly predispose patients to these issues. It is the lack of communication that significantly hinders the ability to address and manage pain and anxiety effectively in these patients.
Question 9 of 9
The patient’s significant other is terrified by the prospect o f removing life-sustaining treatments from the patient and asks why anyone would do that. What explanation should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it explains that the decision to remove life-sustaining treatments is based on the fact that these treatments are not helping the patient and may actually be causing discomfort. This rationale aligns with the principle of beneficence, which emphasizes doing good and avoiding harm to the patient. It also respects the patient's autonomy by prioritizing their well-being and quality of life. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on financial reasons rather than the patient's best interest. Choice B is incorrect because it prioritizes hospital resources over individual patient care. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity and may come across as insensitive to the significant other's concerns.